2006-09-01 12:23:48 · 36 answers · asked by Swampy_Bogtrotter 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
If it were not so pitiful, you people would make me laugh. I am strongly certain of the fact that Jesus had the name before any Mexicans (No offense to them) had it.
2006-09-01 12:40:31 · answer #1 · answered by stullerrl 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Others have covered the derivation of the name Jesus and its adoption by Mexican Catholics quite thoroughly; but who can seriously argue that Jesus was not Jewish?
1) His mother was Jewish and Jewishness is inherited through the mother, not the father.
2) Jesus is known as the Son of Man as well as the Son of God, thus thoroughly establishing his earthliness.
3) Jesus debated his religion in the Temple with the priests when he was a precocious 12-13 year-old.
Isn't it strange that the people who are most strident against the Jewishness of Jesus are the Fundamentalist Christians who hold more strongly to the Old Testament than to the New. The Old Testament is the basis of Jewish religion, so Fundamentalist Christians are more closely related to Jews in religious beliefs than they are to normal Christians!
2006-09-01 12:53:50 · answer #2 · answered by narkypoon 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was a Jewish person. He was here before the Mexicans. Mexicans name their children Jesus sometimes,but it is pronounced Hey-zoos. Think of some quality questions next time. This one stinks. But,now you know. Soldier of God has a point. He is right in the part that he is God,but He was born of Jewish woman.
2006-09-01 12:29:20 · answer #3 · answered by sumrtanman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is not a Mexican Name. It is a commonly used name for mexican because they like to use names from the bible
2006-09-01 12:28:57 · answer #4 · answered by sval23 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus only became a Mexican name in honour of Jesus Christ and so in his time it wasn't Mexican. There wasn't a Mexico either.
And yes everybody, Jesus was Jewish, which is why the Sanhedrin were the ones to sentence him for religious crimes and not the Romans (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sanhedrin -Early Christianity).
2006-09-01 12:46:31 · answer #5 · answered by reaper8436247 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus preceded the Mexican practice of naming children Jesus.
2006-09-01 12:26:47 · answer #6 · answered by Gestalt 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The name Jesus in Hebrew is Yeshua. The meaning comes from the Hebrew root, yasha, meaning "to save." That is why He was named Yeshua, because He will "save" His people from their sins (Mt. 1:21). Thus, Yeshua means "salvation."
The English name, Jesus, is just a transmigration through several languages. Hebrew has an "sh" sound, Greek has a hard "s"; the Hebrew "y" changes to a Greek "i"; then through Latin to the English "j." Vowel patterns change; this is simply the nature of languages. His name shifts from the Hebrew Yeshua, to the Greek Iesous, to Latin Iesus, to English Jesus. So, Jesus is not a substitute name for Yeshua, it is the English equivalent.
2006-09-01 12:30:07 · answer #7 · answered by mph103 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It also happens to have been a common Jewish name during Jesus's time.
2006-09-01 12:29:29 · answer #8 · answered by gregory_dittman 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no It's the other way around,the mexican used Jesus name
2006-09-01 12:27:55 · answer #9 · answered by purpleaura1 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Think carefully about this.
Jesus, as a Mexican name, is imported from Spain by the Conquistadors. All the Conquistadors were Catholic. They converted (under threat of death) all the Aztecs, Olmecs, Toltecs, and lesser known tribes to Catholicism.
Jesus, being the name of their new Catholic founder, became extremely popular (especially when the conquistadors threatened to kill the child if it had a native name).
2006-09-01 12:28:07 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋