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Revelation 1:8.

2006-09-01 11:58:33 · 9 answers · asked by Wayne S 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

That is what John is saying, yes.

2006-09-01 12:01:30 · answer #1 · answered by Gestalt 6 · 0 0

No, on the contrary. According to Jesus himself: (a) Jehovah, his father is greater than he is (John 14:28) (b) He has limited authority (Matthew 20:20-23); (c) His powers are limited (Matthew 24:36; John 5:30 )

Based on his admissions, how can one really reasonably conclude that he is Almighty?

Ahhhh!! but the minds of some are really blinded by Satan. They can not understand the plain meaning of what Jesus said. They insist on finding the pagan doctrine of the Trinitity in the Bible.

Its a case of twisting, or misinterpreting the Bible, to suit one's belief. It should be the other way around

2006-09-01 12:45:58 · answer #2 · answered by Victor B 4 · 1 0

No ----These words apply to God, not to Christ. The one, “who is, and who was and who is to come” is clearly identified from the context. Revelation 1:4 and 5 reads: “Grace and peace to you from him who is, and who was, and who is to come, and from the seven spirits before his throne, AND from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, the firstborn from the dead, and the ruler of the kings of the earth.” The separation between “the one who was, is and is to come” and Christ can be clearly seen. The one “who is, and who was and who is to come” is God. This verse is made slightly more ambiguous in the KJV because the word “God” is left out of the Greek text from which the KJV was translated. Nevertheless, modern textual research shows conclusively that it should be included, and modern versions do include the word “God.” Because of the phrase, “the Alpha and the Omega,” many feel this verse refers to Christ. However, a study of the occurrences of the phrase indicates that the title “Alpha and Omega” applies to both God and Christ. Scholars are not completely sure what the phrase “the Alpha and the Omega” means. It cannot be strictly literal, because neither God nor Christ is a Greek letter. Lenski concludes, “It is fruitless to search Jewish and pagan literature for the source of something that resembles this name Alpha and Omega. Nowhere is a person, to say nothing of a divine Person, called ‘Alpha and Omega,’ or in Hebrew, ‘Aleph and Tau.’” Although there is no evidence from the historical sources that anyone is named “the Alpha and Omega,” Bullinger says that the phrase “is a Hebraism, in common use among the ancient Jewish Commentators to designate the whole of anything from the beginning to the end; e.g., ‘Adam transgressed the whole law from Aleph to Tau’ (Jalk. Reub., fol. 17.4)” [2] The best scholarly minds have concluded that the phrase has something to do with starting and finishing something, or the entirety of something. Norton writes that these words, “denote the certain accomplishment of his purposes; that what he has begun he will carry on to its consummation” (pp. 479 and 480).
Since both God and Jesus Christ are “the Alpha and the Omega” in their own respective ways, there is good reason to believe that the title can apply to both of them, and no good reason why that makes the two into “one God.” The titles “Lord” (see Rom. 10:9), “Savior” (see Luke 1:47) and “king of kings (see 1 Tim. 6:14-16) apply to both God and Christ, as well as to other men. As with “Lord,” “Savior” and “King of kings,” this title fits them both. God is truly the beginning and the end of all things, while Christ is the beginning and the end because he is the firstborn from the dead, the Author and Finisher of faith, the Man by whom God will judge the world, and the creator of the new ages to come (see Heb. 1:10).

2006-09-01 12:37:11 · answer #3 · answered by Micah 6 · 0 1

Yes

2006-09-01 14:39:41 · answer #4 · answered by Not perfect, just forgiven 5 · 0 1

Yes

2006-09-01 12:03:19 · answer #5 · answered by jewel_flower 4 · 0 1

Yes, and also in John 8:58 He was essentially saying that. "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

"I AM" was the name God gave as His when He said it to Moses in the burning bush.

2006-09-01 12:05:02 · answer #6 · answered by Chalkbrd 5 · 0 0

No, As a matter of FACT, The bible clearly states that Jesus is not the messiah that the Christians claim he is.

2006-09-01 12:05:26 · answer #7 · answered by chubbiguy40 4 · 0 3

In Jesus dwells ALL the fullness of the Godhead bodily (Col.2:9 below) -

oGod the Father
oThe Holy Spirit of God the Father
oThe Word of God the Father

The only begotten son of God the Father (Jn.1:14 below), Jesus (the Word - Jn.1:1, Jn.1:14 below), His beloved Son (Matt.3:17 below), was conceived of the Holy Ghost (Matt.1:20 below).

It is God the Father who conceived in Mary (blessed among women) His very Word through His very Holy Spirit (Matt.1:20 below).

Col.2:9 For in him dwelleth ALL the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

Jn.1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, (Matt.1:20, Matt.3:17 below)) full of grace and truth.

Jn.1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (Re.1:6, Lk.1:47 below).

Re.1:6And hath made us kings and priests unto God (Jn.1:1 above) AND his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

Lk.1:47And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour (Jn.1:14, Jn.1:1, Re.1:6 above).

Lk.1:68 Blessed [be] the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,

Matt.3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son (Matt.1:20 below), in whom I am well pleased.

Matt.1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost (Jn.1:14, Matt.3:17 above).



Pat (ndbpsa ©)

2006-09-01 14:25:05 · answer #8 · answered by BibleProphecyOnTheWeb 5 · 0 0

yea

2006-09-01 12:04:17 · answer #9 · answered by Bella! 3 · 0 1

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