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I'm trying to learn some spanish the only thing I know is the numbers. Uno Dos Tres Cuatro Cino Seis Siete Ocho Nueve Diez Once Doce Trec.
But some spanish guy told me that spanish speakers use genders in their language.

2006-08-31 12:16:11 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

10 answers

Yes they do, they use Masculine and Feminine. Feminine is female and Masculine is male. La in Spanish means famine and Lo in Spanish means Masculine. This is how you say Boy in Spanish Muchach(o) and Girl is Muchach(a) you see how Famine uses A's and Masculine uses Os's?
I've been taking Spanish since the 7th grade, so trust me on this one.

2006-08-31 12:22:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Yes. In Spanish, nouns have different genders. There are two possible genders in Spanish: masculine and feminine. These genders affect the form of things that go near the nouns, like articles and adjectives. The rule that previous people have told you that "a" is feminine and "o" is masculine is mostly correct, but there are some nouns that this rule doesn't work for, and there are some nouns that don't end in either "o" or "a", so you just have to know the gender of those. It's just simply a way of talking about two groups of nouns.

Please be aware that the names "masculine" and "feminine" are attached to the genders, but they have nothing to do with actual gender of a person or object. It's just a name. For example, Danish has two genders, but they aren't called "masculine" or "feminine", they are called "common" and "neuter". If you try to go down the route of assigning masculine or feminine properties to nouns in Spanish, as the first answerer suggests, you'll have a very hard time. It doesn't work that way.

You should feel happy, though, that you're learning a language that only has two genders to keep track of. German has three, and Swahili has 14!

2006-08-31 16:56:18 · answer #2 · answered by drshorty 7 · 0 0

Yes, and that is not the only difference from English and Spanish. We also have a formal and and informal way to talk to people. If we are talking to someone older or someone who deserves a lot of respect we say Usted, and the informal was would be Tu, both are ways of saying You. The genders, well, most of the femenine words end up with "a" while most of masculine words end with "o". For instance, crazy, for a male it would be locO, while for a female it would be locA. All objects and everything has a gender...

2006-08-31 12:25:03 · answer #3 · answered by GG 3 · 0 0

Yes, sample frog, male frog = Sapo, fem frog = Rana, male Dog, Perro, female dog = Perra. in some case the whole word changes, though basically every thing is different while you speck of, to or with the different gender, in essences woman's have their own way of communicating (privately) as well than man do also within the same gender.

2006-08-31 12:48:20 · answer #4 · answered by paradiseemperatorbluepinguin 5 · 0 0

they do use gender when speaking their language. "a" is feminine and "o" is masculine at the end of a word describing a man or woman as the subject. "la" is feminine and "el"used to descibe things with a feminine or masculine ending.

2006-08-31 12:32:18 · answer #5 · answered by christina p 4 · 0 0

yes, in spanish we use gender, as someone wrote "a" is for female and "o" for male. One is the only number where you use gender, for example if you want to say "one dog" and it is female you use "una perra" if it is male you use "un perro".
The other numbers are the same you said for both female and male

2006-08-31 13:07:29 · answer #6 · answered by fireangel 4 · 0 0

Yes. It's the same thing that french & other languages do. For example: la cucina is the kitchen (feminine), and el nino is the boy (obviously male).

2006-08-31 12:19:52 · answer #7 · answered by Moxie1313 5 · 0 1

In my second semester of Spanish in college, they most definitely do.

2006-08-31 12:22:44 · answer #8 · answered by sweet smile 3 · 0 0

yes. feminine ends in 'a' and masculine ends in 'o'.

2006-08-31 12:21:53 · answer #9 · answered by flip4urkandi 3 · 0 1

yes, they do; just like in all languages i imagine. for instance, el (him) & ella(her).

2006-08-31 12:24:17 · answer #10 · answered by lady sixx 6 · 0 0

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