St Paul says, I became your father in Christ Jesus through the Gospels 1Corth 4:15
Serious question.
2006-08-31 11:25:15 · 16 answers · asked by Lives7 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I appreciate the translations, but is the authentic interpretation. The original language state. I am not trying to trick anyone, simply asking.
2006-08-31 11:35:15 · update #1
Excellent question.
When Jesus said "Call no man father", He was speaking of placing someone else the same position of God the Father in your life or to allow anyone to place you before God.
It is funny that some who criticize Catholics for calling their priests "Father" will calll their ministers "Reverend" - "a person to be revered".
2006-08-31 11:32:09 · answer #1 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
A church father would be someone who had helped establish a church just as we as fathers establish our households . However we should never call a man father in a holy reverent way . God is our father if we be Christan's and this is in the spiritual sense . In the natural we all have earthly fathers or else we wouldn't be here.I hope this doesn't sound offensive although I'm sure it will , but the catholic faith should take a closer look at this.And we all need to examine ourselves , it's so easy to stray from the truth.Would everyone that reads this pray for me. Thank You and may God Bless You.
2006-08-31 11:46:12 · answer #2 · answered by don_steele54 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Bible is saying 'call no man father' because it is saying put no one else above Him. 1 Corth 4:15 St. Paul is saying I became you dad-like figure through God....St. Paul is saying to go to him for advice, or someone to admire, but the only reason is because St. Paul has a close relationship with the Lord.
2006-08-31 11:29:14 · answer #3 · answered by SadToday22 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He's just making a point that he feels like he is a father of those people. A spiritual head of that Christian family, but he would also go on to teach about how he is nothing without Christ's power. Good question. But read around those verses and put it all in context, then you will get a better meaning. And if you can compare it with other verses, that will help you understand better too
2006-08-31 11:29:32 · answer #4 · answered by Steve M 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
"And call no man your father on earth, for you have one Father who is in heaven" Mt. 23:9 you forgot that one....
In this passage Jesus s teaching that God the Father alone is ultimately the source of ALL authority. But He is not speaking absolutely, because if so, that would eliminate biological fathers, church fathers, founding fathers and so on. Jesus Himself uses the term Father" in Matthew 15:4-5 telling us to honour thy father & mother. Mt 19:5 for a man shall leave his father and cling to his wife. In Luke 16:24 & 30 Jesus calls father Abraham. I could list more if you'd like.... Acts 7:2, ROm 4:12, Rom 9:10.
God is our Father, our dad and others are our fathers. there is a big difference.
2006-08-31 12:26:49 · answer #5 · answered by Marysia 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
There is a slight error, in your thinking...but generally, he was speaking of being their father in a spiritual sense, in terms of guiding and teaching, and in looking out for their best interest. He was not equating himself with God.
I believe the scripture you are thinking of, says call no one else Lord, in the same way we call God, Father. This is a good question, however, and one that can be confusing. But also consider that we were told that if we gave up family and friends for God, then they would be replaced a hundred fold with wise men and women who would fill the spots that our biological families could not....that of a spiritual family.
2006-08-31 11:32:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Scripture uses the word "father" over a thousand different times and applies it in many different contexts, and in many different translations, including the original Greek and Hebrew.
The ONLY reason Protestant tradition teaches that no one other than God should be called "Father" is because of their dislike of Catholics, and particularly, of the God ordained power of the Catholic priesthood.
Doing this, they rewrite scripture in their own image and create a false tradition of man ... two of the very things they always claim Catholics do.
At least the Catholic church clearly posesses the authority from God to bind and loose.
Protestants claim to have authority, but in reality, they have nothing at all.
2006-08-31 12:07:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, because he didn't tell the Corinthian Congregation to call him "father",
He said I have become your father, not as a title, but as an expression of his love and concern for them.
By sharing the Good News about Christ, he imparted life to them.
At 1 Thess 2:7 he described himself as a nursing mother who chreishes her children.
Paul was not a peddler of God's Word. (2 Cor 2:17) He had true feelings toward those he taught.
John in his letters refers to whom he's writing to as his children,
Again this is to show the love he had for those who listen to him, Not a title to be called.
2006-08-31 11:42:02 · answer #8 · answered by TeeM 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I'm guessing your Catholic so here's my answer: If your question is about calling Catholic authority "Father," it might be that St. Paul isn't erronious, but the people who've supposedly read it to you misunderstood... As it said in verse 14, you have many guadians, but only one to call Father.
2006-08-31 13:32:07 · answer #9 · answered by LC 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
He could be at times, we arent suppose to follow Paul, but Paul points us to Jesus Christ as Lord, Paul was also human and I think he did get depressed at times, but even during his depressions, he rejoiced in the Lord.
2006-08-31 11:31:18 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋