Leviticus 25:44-46 "Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly."
What kind of a human value does the Bible give to slaves? If slaves and their children must be inherited and passed down to newer generations as slaves, then how in the world will they ever gain their freedom?? Does the Bible believe in Freedom? Does the Bible believe in liberating human beings from slavery? Apparently it does not !!!.
2006-08-31 01:57:50 · 13 answers · asked by ZinedineVieira 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible itself is a form of mental slavery.
2006-08-31 02:01:17 · answer #1 · answered by bonzo the tap dancing chimp 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The Bible does not specifically condemn the practice of slavery. It gives instructions on how slaves should be treated (Deuteronomy 15:12-15; Ephesians 6:9; Colossians 4:1), but does not outlaw the practice altogether. Many see this as the Bible condoning all forms of slavery. What many people don’t understand is that slavery in the Bible times is completely different from the slavery that was practiced in the United States in the 1700’s and 1800’s. The slavery in the Bible was not based on race at all. People were not enslaved because of their nationality or the color of their skin. In Bible times, slavery was more of a social status. People sold themselves as slaves when they could not pay their debts or provide for their family. In New Testament times, sometimes doctors, lawyers, even politicians were slaves of someone else for one reason or another. Some people actually chose to be slaves so as to have all their needs provided for by their master.
The slavery of the 1700’s and 1800’s was based on skin color. Black people were considered slaves because of their nationality – most slave owners truly believed black people to be “inferior human beings” to white people. This is similar to the slavery the Jews experienced when they were in Egypt. The Jews were slaves, not by choice, but because they were Jews (Exodus 13:14). The plagues God poured out on Egypt demonstrate how God feels about racial slavery (Exodus 7-11). So, yes, the Bible does condone slavery. However, the slavery the Bible allowed for in no way resembled the racial slavery that plagued our world in the past few centuries.
2006-08-31 09:05:04 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Not saying that I understand the Bible all too well, that is yet another of my questions regarding the Bible - but I think it goes to show what life was back then. Slavery was a fact of life (not an illegal profit as it is now) and in many cases a slave was more fortunate than say, a beggar.
The Bible does not advocate slavery, it is a religious chronicle I think, keeping track of the human race in connection to God.
...it should have carried on though, shouldn't it. Hang on, I'll post a question.
2006-08-31 09:04:14 · answer #3 · answered by Derek K 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Stop going back 5000 years, this is a different time and a different culture. Most Christians today do not own slaves.
Nor do they pass them down to their children.
At least as a slave they got a place to live, food to eat and clothes to wear. Even medical attention.
The super Rich who rule this country won't raise the minimum wage so the poor today can't afford a place to live and enough food to eat or medical care. That is only out to the rich people who raise there huge wages 10 times.
Maybe we should bring back slavery. The poor would be better off. Alex
2006-08-31 09:04:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh, this is a metaphor? How come the stuff against homosexuality is meant to be taken literally, but the stuff about slaves and not touching the skin of a pig (so, football's out) are metaphors? How very convenient.
2006-08-31 09:04:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Read the whole thing. In the year of Jubilee, mentioned later in the passage you cite, slaves were offered their freedom. In fact, slave prices were based in part on the number of years left to Jubilee.
2006-08-31 09:08:48 · answer #6 · answered by Jamestheflame 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it does. Jesus came to set us all free.
The Old testament was written at a time when people had slaves. And people would sell them selves into slavery. The O/T had rules for treating others. Slave or not.
2006-08-31 09:01:27 · answer #7 · answered by IN Atlanta 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
How many people do you know that own slaves today? It seems like you're making a non-point about something that was very relevant 3,000 years ago, but doesn't effect anyone's faith today.
2006-08-31 09:02:43 · answer #8 · answered by luvwinz 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First of all, this was pretty good slavery, compared to most thing in the ancient world, and even most employment today. Secondly, they can be freed, it's just not mandatory.
2006-08-31 10:12:53 · answer #9 · answered by ysk 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fantastic quote you had cited.
This is one apparent proof that Bible isn't right in many things.
This is also an another proof that isn't God's words totally.
2006-08-31 09:07:37 · answer #10 · answered by idsalex 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋