Can any one proove 1=2 ?

Answer 1

a = x [true for some a's and x's]
a+a = a+x [add a to both sides]
2a = a+x [a+a = 2a]
2a-2x = a+x-2x [subtract 2x from both sides]
2(a-x) = a+x-2x [2a-2x = 2(a-x)]
2(a-x) = a-x [x-2x = -x]
2 = 1 [divide both sides by a-x]
ergo, 1=2

(Can you find the mistake?)

Answer 2

groove 1=2

Answer 3

Yup. A pregnant woman has 2 bodies, 2 souls, 2 heart beats and so on. It could be 1=3 if inside her tummy is a twins! :p

Answer 4

relies upon on what the (a million) is composed of. you at the instant are not asking if (a million) + some thing equals (2), your question is, if (a million) can equivalent (2), of course it may. occasion, if somebody asked you strategies many sheets of two section carbon paper you needed, your answer might desire to be (a million), for this reason, it would fairly mean (2), because of the fact a series of two section carbon paper includes (2) sheets.

Answer 5

Haha i think i know...in base 2, 1=2

Answer 6

1 is just a pronumeral in this instance, and it is equal to the value of the number 2

Answer 7

Yes, it can be proven if 1 and 2 are defined appropriately.

Answer 8

ya.I can prove
1*0=0
2*0=0
so,1*0=2*0
now,dividing both d sides by 0.Now what is left canceling 0 from both the sides is
1=2
understood?
(i don't think so)

Answer 9

no, it is not possible. It is mathematics!!

and mortisia,

if a=x that is a-x=0 (at the sixth step).
And you cannot divide both sides by (a-x) since this means that you wish to divide both sides 0 (since a=x). At the seventh step, right side of the equation, (a-x)/(a-x) makes 0/0, which is mathematically null. Thus, (a-x)/(a-x) does not equal to 1 and is 0/0.

Answer 10

1=2 (hence proved)
so easy