That's terrible. Which country is that?
2006-09-07 15:37:13
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answer #1
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answered by Vicki B 5
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There is no such law in Islam.
You might be thinking of the law in which someone accusing a woman of adultery must provide four witnesses to prove the accusation. This law exists to make it almost impossible to punish someone for adultery, since the punishment is harsh.
Punishment can only be carried out by a legitimate Islamic state authority, ie individuals cannot take justice into their own hands, so these laws are not applicable to most Muslims in the world today, since most live under secular law.
Imran
2006-08-30 18:49:47
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Jamal answered it perfectly. Alhamdilliah, Jamal!
In the bible it says a woman who commits adulty is to be stoned but a man who does it with an unmarried woman it's not considered adultry. Hmmm, interesting bit of UNFAIR. While in the Qu'ran, any such accusation must be proven and if it cannot be, then the woman is considered innocent.
2006-09-07 09:42:31
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answer #3
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answered by littledarling54 2
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Koran say to produce four witnesses, because medical science was not very advance at that time, so it was useless to speak about DNA test
Now think about someone who lives in 100 or 500 AD, and if he/she want to prove an act of rape, how he/she will prove it?
2006-08-30 20:27:17
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answer #4
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answered by Cosmic_Crunch 1
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"Why does the quran state that particularly she could produce 4 witnesses" Did you study this interior the Quran? if so then supply your reference. If no longer, then why are you asserting it here? You didnt study this type of regulation using fact it particularly is nowhere to be stumbled on interior the Quran. Quran talks approximately 4 witness for *adultery* no longer rape. additionally, eyewitness' is likewise no longer the only information required to convict somebody. --------- Our genes are made up of countless mixtures of four acid molecules: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Thiamine. those 4 molecules, that are made up of four distinctive aspects, function as witnesses for the identification of persons to which they belong. The Quran does not unavoidably require the witness to be an eyewitness. working example, we bear witness to the oneness of God by our intelligence. The witness suggested in 12:26-27 isn't seen a witness using fact he became modern-day in the time of the alleged incident. That witness did no longer say, "I observed with my eyes." The human witness suggested in that tale is featuring the testimony of circumstantial information, and logical conclusions in line with the two inductive and deductive reasoning. In different words, the Quran accepts the testimony of stable circumstantial information basically because it accepts the testimony of a competent eyewitness."
2016-09-30 04:55:14
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answer #5
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answered by kroner 4
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LOL!!! what an ignorant you are!! or just maybe a little stupid i donno!
the LAW you speak of is when someone claims to have witnessed someone commiting adultery, his/her claim would not be considered if there'snt 4 adult muslim men that have witnessed this act.
NOT rape you idiot.
lets say i saw you fu cking some one and that's illegal, i went to report it to the police, the police will not file any charges unless there was 4 adult men that witnessed this crime.
get it now??
nice try
2006-08-30 18:49:33
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No, the verse says if anyone accuses a woman of adultery, fornication or such he has to bring 4 witnesses
024.004
"And those who launch a charge against chaste women, and produce not four witnesses (to support their allegations),- flog them with eighty stripes; and reject their evidence ever after: for such men are wicked transgressors;"
It's in place to prevent people from falsely accusing women. The women is given the benefit of doubt. Which, in my opinion should be the case in cases of rape.
Those who raise the allegation are to be punished, whether they are telling the truth or not. The intent of this is so that is its harder to accuse someone.. (slander)
2006-08-30 18:36:15
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answer #7
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answered by Jamal 3
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Excuse me, where were the Muslims in 100 or 500 AD?
2006-09-07 03:47:53
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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no i dont think there is any sort of thing like that in the Koran.
that is just a pakistani law which should be amended.
the recent mukhtara mai case has brought up a lot of attention to this scenario. you can read more about it at wikipedia.com
2006-08-30 18:43:56
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answer #9
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answered by A 6
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I never heard that. I read the whole al-quaran 4 times.
2006-08-30 18:37:02
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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who the heck is Zia-ul- Haq? Pakis and Arabs are not the true muslims. They are of primitive values and ideas, most of those designed for materialistic gains.
There is nothing as such in the Al Quran.
2006-08-30 18:39:00
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answer #11
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answered by Smiling face 2
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