Jesus was called both the Son of God and the Son of man. In Jewish culture the phrase "the son of" meant more than just someone was your father. It meant that you had the power, rights and authority of the one who claimed you are his child. When Jesus called himself "The Son of God", he was showing that he had all the rights, power and authority of God. Meaning, he was divine.
But Jesus was also totally human. He had a physcial body just like any other human. Only the spirit of life had been breathed into it from God. Same as Adam in Genesis chapter 2. Because of that, Jesus also had all the right, powers and authority of a human being.
It was that unique blend of "all of God" in in someone who was "all of man" that made the redemption possible. Since it was a man who sinned, it had to be a man who paid the price. So Jesus had to be man. But in order to pay the price, he had to be a man without sin and in perfect union with God. So Jesus had to be God.
He had to be both man and God to accomplish our salvation.
2006-08-30 06:50:01
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answer #1
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answered by dewcoons 7
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Yes, this refers to Jesus' humanity. Jesus was both fully human and fully God. He had a human body (Gal. 4:4), He grew physically (Luke 2:52), He became hungry (Matt. 4:2) and thirsty (John 19:28), He grew tired (John 4:6), He died. It is important the Jesus was human because only by being human and living a sinless life could He die in our place as a sacrifice for our sins.
He was also called the "Son of God" in reference to His Deity. He creates (John 1:3), He sustains (Col. 1:17), He forgives sin (Luke 7:48), He raises the dead (John 5:25), He judges (John 5:27), He sent the Holy Spirit (John 15:26), He rose from the dead.
2006-08-30 06:48:40
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answer #2
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answered by happygirl 6
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Jesus often referred to Himself as the Son of Man. In fact, this title is used 88 times in the New Testament. Son of Man refers to Jesus being a human being.
Jesus used this title in three distinct ways:
In a general way - almost as a substitute for the pronoun "I." Luke 9:58 says, "Jesus replied, 'Foxes have holes and birds of the air have nests, but the Son of Man has no place to lay his head.'"
Specifically dealing with suffering - Mark 8:31 says, "He then began to teach them that the Son of Man must suffer many things and be rejected by the elders, chief priests and teachers of the law, and that he must be killed and after three days rise again."
Specially dealing with authority - Mark 2:10 says, "But that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins. . ."
The phrase "Son of Man" is used as a reference to Daniel 7:13-14 which says, "In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed."
The title Son of Man is Messianic in nature. In the instances that Jesus used this phrase to describe Himself, He was assigning the Daniel prophecy to Himself. The Jewish people of Jesus' time were intimately familiar with the phrase. They knew that Jesus was proclaiming Himself as the Messiah.
2006-08-30 06:43:20
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answer #3
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answered by pooh bear 4
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It is a prophetic term which originates in the prophecies of Ezekiel. In Ezekiel, a "son of man" (no capitals) was used to indicate humanity, as opposed to divinity. All prophets were still just men, the sons of men.
But Jesus used a somewhat different term -- "the Son of Man" (capitals used by convention to indicate Jesus) to denote himself. This was to indicate both that he was human, but that he was also more than that. He said things such as "But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority on earth to forgive sins..." This was groundshaking, earthshaking, heaven-shaking. Men do not have the authority to forgive sins, only God has that authority. Men can only forgive wrongs done against them, while sins are comitted against God. Jesus was using this term to show us that he was unique in all of humanity. Though he was wholly human like we are, yet he was also wholly divine and had authority beyond that given to men.
2006-08-30 06:59:29
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answer #4
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answered by Mustela Frenata 5
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Mary grow to be, for decide for of a greater useful be conscious, His surrugate Mum. Lu a million:35 The angel spoke back to her: The Holy Spirit will stumble upon you, and the capacity of the main extreme will overshadow you. as a result the holy baby to be born would be noted as the Son of God. The Geneaology. Lu 3:38 son of Enos, son of Seth, son of Adam, son of God. Jesus had to stay hidden for as long as He ought to remember, So He even commanded the Demons to Hush approximately who He grow to be! Lu 4:40-one additionally, demons have been popping out of many, shouting and saying, "you are the Son of God!" yet He rebuked them and would not enable them to talk, because of the fact they knew He grow to be the Messiah. John a million:40 9 "Rabbi," Nathanael spoke back, "you are the Son of God! you are the King of Israel!" JESUS is conversing Himself in those next 4 Scriptures and there are hundreds greater, yet no longer sufficient space for all. John 3:18 every physique who believes in Him isn't judged, yet every physique who would not have self belief is already judged, because of the fact he has no longer believed interior the call of the only Son of God. John 5:25 "I assure you: An hour is coming, and is now right here, while the lifeless will hear the voice of the Son of God, and people who hear will stay." John 10:36 do you assert, 'you're blaspheming' to the single the father set aside and despatched into the international, because of the fact I pronounced 'i'm the Son of God'? John 11:4 while Jesus heard it, He pronounced, "This disease won't lead to demise, yet is for the honour of God, so as that the Son of God may be glorified by it."
2016-10-01 02:24:46
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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Jesus was called the Son of Man because he was God's son...granted that God is not a man, Jesus was considered the son of humanity because of his special ability to conquer death and raise from the dead. It is also most likely a reference to his immaculate conception as well.
2006-08-30 06:41:27
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answer #6
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answered by GLSigma3 6
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This sounds like some kind of contradiction at first glance, but in fact there is no contradiction. An examination of Scripture reveals that the phrase "Son of Man" carries broad significance.
First of all, even if the phrase "Son of Man" is a reference to Jesus' humanity, it is not a denial of His deity. By becoming a man, Jesus did not cease being God. The incarnation of Christ did not involve the subtraction of deity, but the addition of humanity. Jesus clearly claimed to be God on many occasions (Matthew 16:16,17; John 8:58; 10:30). But in addition to being divine, He was also human (see Philippians 2:6-8). He had two natures (divine and human) conjoined in one person.
Further, Scripture indicates that Jesus was not denying His deity by referring to Himself as the Son of Man. In fact, it is highly revealing that the term "Son of Man" is used in Scripture in contexts of Christ's deity. For example, the Bible says that only God can forgive sins (Isaiah 43:25; Mark 2:7). But as the "Son of Man," Jesus had the power to forgive sins (Mark 2:10). Likewise, Christ will return to earth as the "Son of Man" in clouds of glory to reign on earth (Matthew 26:63-64). In this passage, Jesus is citing Daniel 7:13 where the Messiah is described as the "Ancient of Days," a phrase used to indicate His deity (cf. Daniel 7:9).
Further, when Jesus was asked by the high priest whether He was the "Son of God" (Matthew 26:63), He responded affirmatively, declaring that He was the "Son of Man" who would come in power and great glory (verse 64). This indicated that Jesus Himself used the phrase "Son of Man" to indicate His deity as the Son of God.
Finally, the phrase "Son of Man" also emphasizes who Jesus is in relation to His incarnation and His work of salvation.
2006-08-30 06:44:49
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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He stood out.
I suppose he was a lightworker or a bodhisattva.
An inspiration to all as a teacher and healer.
I really admire him and buddha.
He was the son of man because he was such a shining example of what enlightened beings should be like.
We are all Gods with amnesia.
2006-08-30 06:42:11
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answer #8
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answered by NoLabel 11 4
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The Hebrew word for man is "Adam" so Jesus would have been saying "Ben Adam" in Hebrew. That means he is what Adam is, just like the rest of us are. "Son of God" would have been "Ben Elohim" or maybe "Ben HaElohim." That would meant that he was all that God was. So he was the Son of God and the Son of Man, perfect man, perfectly divine.
2006-08-30 06:46:01
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answer #9
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answered by Sifu Shaun 3
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It is just a reference to his humanity.
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2006-08-30 06:41:16
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answer #10
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answered by Pashur 7
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