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Where this difference comes from ?
Example :
Moses : Moshe !

2006-08-30 06:23:54 · 10 answers · asked by citizen high 6 in Society & Culture Languages

Folks , You remind me of something .
Greeks , today , don't say : Short .
..........................they say...: sort .
Because they can't pronounce the letter Sh.

2006-08-30 07:01:59 · update #1

10 answers

The Hebrew was first translated into Greek, and from there to Latin, so a sound that doesn't exist in one language was changed, or the name was "Anglicized", or whatever the Greek equivialnt is.

2006-08-30 06:58:02 · answer #1 · answered by ysk 4 · 0 0

The Old Testament was originally written in Hebrew. The New Testament in Greek. Because their alphabets are different, the spellings are different between the two languages. The King James translator choose not to translate any of the names, but to take them exactly as they were written from Hebrew or Greek into English. So since they are different in the two languages, they copy different into English. Most newer translations use the Hebrew spelling for people whose names appear in both testaments, and Greek for the New Testament only people to make it easier to understand.

2006-08-30 13:33:15 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 0 0

The original jewish text had no vowels, vowels were added to the jewish alphabet well after the time of Christ in order to allow easy interpretation in other languages. This is why I question the validity of the Bible as the only source of Christian study. Different vowels when added to old hebrew writings can completely change the meaning of the scripture. I trust more the answers I receive through prayer about faith, especially the ones that pass the test of peace.

2006-08-30 13:30:36 · answer #3 · answered by Jimbo 3 · 0 0

Because the bible, originally written in a form of Hebrew, had to be translated into English. Moses is the English form of Moshe..etc

2006-08-30 13:26:49 · answer #4 · answered by thomas p 5 · 0 0

Perhaps because you're reading an ENGLISH translation of the Bible and the Jews spoke and still speak Hebrew?

My name in Hebrew is Hannaniah. In English it's Anne. Same meaning, different pronunciation, different spelling.

2006-08-30 13:28:42 · answer #5 · answered by Granny Annie 6 · 0 0

the Hebrew language doesn't even have vowels, so its pretty much hit or miss on proper pronunciations. There are so many mistakes in translations of Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic I'm not surprised religion is such a confusing venture. Heck some Jewish person translated "Love your neighbor as yourself" to "hey, lets go bomb the crap out the Lebanese".

2006-08-30 13:34:32 · answer #6 · answered by green-eyed monster 2 · 0 1

It may have something to do with the fact that the ancient Hebrew writing system did not use vowels.

Thus, no one is really sure how most old hebrew words were pronounced, and therefore many transliterations (translating something from one alphabet to another) were made based on cross-references and other methods by the scholars.

For example, Jesus, in Hebrew is thought to be "Yeshwah", from the transliterated YSWH.

2006-08-30 13:36:03 · answer #7 · answered by shinkaide 2 · 0 0

There is not such thing as a bible pronunciation, it's an english pronunciation. If you were reading a Bible written in hebrew (and you were understanding it) you will find out that there is no difference in the names or in their pronunciation...
PD. Good, keep reading your Bible

2006-08-30 13:48:12 · answer #8 · answered by fireangel 4 · 0 0

Because the Bible was written original in three languages.
Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.

2006-08-30 13:30:02 · answer #9 · answered by alfonso 5 · 0 0

I guess it depends on the version of the bible you're reading.

2006-08-30 13:26:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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