very often when debating homosexuality and the bible. When I see the rare tv show where the issue is challenged, Leviticus is always brought up . Its clear as day in the New testament. Has any Christian noticed this? Why not go to this chapter?
2006-08-30 06:20:27 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Romans 1:26,27 is a perfect line for this. It is very blunt but very true. Not very politically correct though. But God's wisdom is God's wisdom and if we follow it we will be wise indeed. In agreement.
2006-08-30 06:26:28 · answer #1 · answered by Batchlor of the Arts 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Some do. I don't like to for several reasons:
1) it makes homosexuality the result of evil, not something that is evil itself.
2) we can't be sure that "working that which is unseemly" actually means any one thing in particular.
3) it could simply refer to prostitution. (Notice that he specifies men with men, but does not specify women with...? Also, the Greek word for "use" is chresis, which comes from chraomai which means "to recieve a loan.")
I prefer Leviticus because it's very clearly "a man with a man as though a woman."
2006-08-30 13:40:14 · answer #2 · answered by Sifu Shaun 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is a good question. I believe the reason no one has ever cited Romans 1:26-27 is because when homosexuality people automatically think of the old testement.
2006-08-30 13:33:01 · answer #3 · answered by greg62677 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because as invaluable as it is to Christians, atheists, other religions, and very liberal and fringe (ie Gnostics) Christians believe Paul 'stole' Christianity from Jesus, and hence his words are not as valuable as God's.
...which is really quite funny, since God's words aren't valuable to most of them anyway...
Simply put, since they believe homosexuality is right, and are predisposed to such thinking, when expecting a Biblical answer, the words of a mere man won't suffice, and the words of God in the OT are to be discounted (Because the laws were fulfilled). Because Jesus doesn't specifically mention for or against it the way God did, they do not take any other answer seriously, and consider it as a strawman arguement.
They tend to use a bit of circular and exclusionary reasoning, from what I've experienced (now, mind you, this is highly overgeneralized, but done so to illustrate countless discussions and arguements I've been in)...
Prove to me that homosexuality is wrong using the Bible.
You cannot use verses from a fallible man, nor can you use any obsolete references (therefore, eliminating all possible answers).
Since you cannot prove your reasoning within my acceptance level, your reasoning is therefore false.
Since your Biblical reasoning within my own capability of understanding is false, therefore the Bible is false, the Bible must then be discounted from your reasoning on why homosexuality is wrong.
So, using *my* realm of naturalistic knowledge, which is outside of your realm of spiritual knowledge (which I can't understand), why is homosexuality wrong?
Sorry, since science is infallible, and your reasoning is outside of what I believe wholeheartedly to be indisputable fact, you must be an ignoramus.
2006-08-30 13:51:08 · answer #4 · answered by seraphim_pwns_u 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That and 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 where it states that no homosexual will inherit the Kingdom of God.
Have no idea why those are not quoted more often.
2006-08-30 13:27:53 · answer #5 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Why limit it there, if you go on to read Romans 1: 28-30 it also says they were given over to a "depraved mind". So should we not also be debating those who "envy, murder, decieve, boast and gossip". Hmmm....funny how we choose to focus on only one sin?
2006-08-30 14:13:34 · answer #6 · answered by Disney Dreamer 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Oh, wow. I never noticed that one and I've read the entire bible. I didn't even know that homosexuality was directly spoken upon in the bible. I always used the fact that God created a man and a woman for my argument. But, thanks to you I can before plead my case. Thanks.
2006-08-30 13:27:22 · answer #7 · answered by Coco 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
the better question is "who wrote the book of Roman and the book of Leviticus?"
2006-08-30 13:24:11 · answer #8 · answered by badotisthecat 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
that is a good passage, it seems pretty clear.. i kno ive read it many times but i guess i havent been put in a position to explain it.. good job
2006-08-30 13:25:07 · answer #9 · answered by tmil 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because Paul has about as much crediblity among Protestants as a drunk, senile hooker.
No offense.
2006-08-30 13:22:55 · answer #10 · answered by Tofu Jesus 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋