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2006-08-29 17:49:52 · 12 answers · asked by link2mrfs 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Singles & Dating
Most of us wash our hands more often than the rest of our bodies - and so we (women at least) use hand lotion to keep them from getting dry and chapped. Hand lotions are sometimes nicer lotions than we would use all over. Sometimes they are strongly scented, again not what we might choose to use all over. Sometimes it's just in a pretty bottle or in a convenient size to keep handy.
2006-08-29 18:00:25 · answer #1 · answered by happymom 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It make your hands softer. I remember when I was in high school, there was this guy who had dry dry DRY hands! It looked so bad and felt even worse.
Guys don't need to get all the fruit-smelling lotions. Get an odorless lotion and it works just as well.
It makes your hands soft and feels good to a girl's skin.
2006-08-30 00:56:43 · answer #2 · answered by Kelly 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
when Buffalo Bill throws it down to you in the well you must cover yourself in it, it keeps your skin soft and supple, so he can peel your flesh off and make lamp shades out of it after he kills you
It rubs the lotion on its skin. It does this whenever it is told.
2006-08-30 00:57:14 · answer #3 · answered by Patrick Bateman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To keep a persons hands soft and supple and not like alligator skin
2006-08-30 00:51:53 · answer #4 · answered by hipergirl22 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what is hand lotion used for? is that what you're asking? to moisturize your skin.
2006-08-30 00:52:58 · answer #5 · answered by one_sera_phim 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It keeps your hands soft.
2006-08-30 00:52:48 · answer #6 · answered by Patty D 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to soften the hands...to protect them from chapping...and to keep them looking nice so some man will want to kiss them...
2006-08-30 00:54:33 · answer #7 · answered by intelligentbooklady 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
to lubricate the hands
2006-08-30 00:52:06 · answer #8 · answered by Shan 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its all in the name FOR YOU HAND but most men use it for wacking off
2006-08-30 00:53:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
profit to the manufacturer
2006-08-30 00:52:18 · answer #10 · answered by sllyjo 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋