2006-08-29 10:38:19 · 8 answers · asked by anonymous 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Actually, they weren't. Luke was the only gospel originally written in Greek. Matthew and Mark (and I am pretty sure John, but not 100%) were all written in Hebrew. They were written in the native language of the author. (Luke was a Greek doctor, don't know the profession of the others, but they were Hebrew)
My mistake on the language then. The people who spoke Aramaic were Hebrews, thus I called their language Hebrew.
2006-08-29 10:44:08 · answer #1 · answered by John J 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The original text of Matthew was in Aramaic but we have no copy of it. It is true what the first post said. I would add that that it was also because of the Septuagint [the Greek translation of the OT].
Personally I wish they had been written in Latin since Koine Greek can be such a pain sometimes!
John J,
You are incorrect. Hebrew was not a spoken language at that time. None of the common people would have understood it. That is why in the synagogues they had the Aramaic translation [Targum Onkalos] they read with the Hebrew texts. All NT texts except Matthew were composed initially in Koine Greek.
2006-08-29 10:48:06 · answer #2 · answered by wehwalt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Will got it, and English is the predominant language of the Western world, today!
What's your point?
John 19:19 (KJV)
And Pilate wrote a title, and put it on the cross. And the writing was JESUS OF NAZARETH THE KING OF THE JEWS. This title then read many of the Jews: for the place where Jesus was crucified was nigh to the city: and it was written in Hebrew, and Greek, and Latin.
Next question!
2006-08-29 10:47:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Koine Greek
2006-08-29 10:58:33 · answer #4 · answered by Truth 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That was the international language of the Roman empire at that time, and it made the gospels more readily available to non-Jews. If it had been written in Hebrew or Aramaic then they would not have been read by anyone outside mainstream Judaism, if at all, and would have disappeared within a few years at best.
2006-08-29 10:46:45 · answer #5 · answered by Mac 3 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Greek was the language of the educated people of the time...Jim
2006-08-29 11:01:33 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
they were written in the native language of the author-thus greek or hebrew.
2006-08-29 11:44:35 · answer #7 · answered by snail 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because it was the predominant language of the eastern Roman Empire.
2006-08-29 10:41:28 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋