DOES ANYONE know what this Bible verse truly means???

Question

2 Corinthians 6:15: "What concord hath Christ with Belial? or what part hath he that believeth with an infidel?" The term: What concord hath Christ with Belial is the equivalent of asking "What agreement or treaty does God and Satan have?" A concord is an agreement or a treaty. Christ is the same as God (one of the three parts). Belial is another name for The Devil. Belial is also referred to in the Bible several times as the embodiment of pure evil. Belial's original name means, "Worthlessness," by the way. So what does this verse mean? Does God and Satan have a sort of pact? And if so, WHAT FOR?????????????????????????????

Answer 1

Yes they do.
God allows Satan to test each and every one of us. When Jesus Christ died on the cross some 2000 years age, He defeated death/Satan. Satan is bound and confined in Heaven till He is booted out with His angels. This will occur shortly.

Most of the world realizes that Jesus Christ was crucified on a cross years ago, but don't realize that they must choose life through Jesus else they forfeit their life and will follow Satan in the lake of fire.

So, Just like the king Nebuchadnezzar was God's servant Satan too is used by God to fulfill God's Will.

There is nothing hidden that will not be revealed and nothing revealed that will be hidden. Yours is to ask the Father in Jesus Christ's name to send His Holy Spirit of truth to you. Then get ready for here it comes.><>

Answer 2

The verse is a "Warning About Non-Christians". 2 Corinthians 6:14 states, "You are not the same as those who do not believe. So do not join yourselfs to them. Good and bad do not belong together." The remaining verse that you questioned is not telling us that Christ and the devil have a pact, it's asking if that is possible. 2 Corinthians 6:15, "How can Christ and Belial, the devil, have an agreement? What can a believer have together with a non-believer? The temple of God cannot have an agreement with idols, and we are the temple of the living God."

Answer 3

This question (in the verse) is asked RHETORICALLY. A rhetorical question is a statement in the form of a question to which no answer is expected. Here's another example of a rhetorical question: What life forms are present on the SUN?

In other words, there is no answer to the question because it is ludicrous to think that there ever could be. By asking this rhetorical question, Paul is making a STATEMENT of the OBVIOUS: Christ has no concord with Belial. And he that believeth hath no part with an infidel.

Hope this helps. God bless you.

P.S. Please DO stick with the Authorized Version (the KJV) - it is the only English version not translated from the corrupted texts. See my blogs "BEWARE OF THE SCRIBES" , "Whose Message Is It?", "Does Your Bible Need A Checkup?", and "Receivng the Mark of the Beast -NO PROBLEM! Say the New Versions" on my 360 page for more information about the corrupt new bible "per-versions" and how they have contributed to the apostasy of the church.You do well to be using the King James Bible.

http://blog.360.yahoo.com/blog-ze6VLFE8erUUw3.9HSKutKNHrV0-?cq=1&p=72

Answer 4

You really must stop limiting yourself to the King James Version only!
Please use a variety of translations, it helps understanding.
Here is that verse from the CEV:
Is Christ a friend of Satan?
Can people who follow the Lord have anything in common with those that don't?
Here's the NEB:
Can Christ agree with Belial, or a believer join hands with an unbeliever?
Here's the NIV:
What harmony is there between Christ and Belial?
What does a believer have in common with an unbeliever?

These are all RHETORICAL questions, meaning the answer should be so obvious it doesn't need to be given.
The answer is: nothing!
Polar opposites.

Answer 5

You have to read the whole peice and not just that part.

"Do not be yoked together with unbelievers. For what do righteousness and wickedness have in common? Or what fellowship can light have with darkness? 15What harmony is there between Christ and Belial[b]? What does a believer have in common with an unbeliever? 16What agreement is there between the temple of God and idols? For we are the temple of the living God. As God has said: "I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be my people."[c]
17"Therefore come out from them
and be separate, says the Lord."

Paul is saying what does Christ and Satan have in common?

Nothing!

Therefore stand out and seperate yourself from the unbeliever.

Basically, don't do what unbelievers would do.

And purify yourself from what contaminates the body and the spirit.



Usually the trick is to read more than just the bible verse. Read the whole book in front and behind it, to get how the verse fits into context.

It is good that you are trying to understand! Keep reading and asking questions!

Answer 6

God has no concord, or part or agreement with Satan. If you read the complete passage it is better understood. Also see the footnotes that help explaine it better.


[2 Cor 6:14] Do not be yoked with those who are different, with unbelievers. For what partnership do righteousness and lawlessness have? Or what fellowship does light have with darkness?
[2 Cor 6:15] What accord has Christ with Beliar? Or what has a believer in common with an unbeliever?
[2 Cor 6:16] What agreement has the temple of God with idols? For we are the temple of the living God; as God said: "I will live with them and move among them, and I will be their God and they shall be my people.
[2 Cor 6:17] Therefore, come forth from them and be separate," says the Lord, "and touch nothing unclean; then I will receive you
[2 Cor 6:18] and I will be a father to you, and you shall be sons and daughters to me, says the Lord Almighty."

Footnote:

[1] (6:14-7:1) Language and thought shift noticeably here. Suddenly we are in a different atmosphere, dealing with a quite different problem. Both the vocabulary and the thought, with their contrast between good and evil, are more characteristic of Qumran documents or the Book of Revelation than they are of Paul. Hence, critics suspect that this section was inserted by another hand.
[2] (14-16a) The opening injunction to separate from unbelievers is reinforced by five rhetorical questions to make the point that Christianity is not compatible with paganism. Their opposition is emphasized also by the accumulation of five distinct designations for each group. These verses are a powerful statement of God's holiness and the exclusiveness of his claims.

Footnote:

[1] (16c-18) This is a chain of scriptural citations carefully woven together. God's covenant relation to his people and his presence among them (2 Cor 6:16) is seen as conditioned on cultic separation from the profane and cultically impure (2 Cor 6:17); that relation is translated into the personal language of the parent-child relationship, an extension to the community of the language of 2 Sam 7:14 (2 Cor 6:18). Some remarkable parallels to this chain are found in the final chapters of Revelation. God's presence among his people (Rev 21:22) is expressed there, too, by applying 2 Sam 7:14 to the community (Rev 21:7). There is a call to separation (Rev 18:4) and exclusion of the unclean from the community and its liturgy (Rev 21:27). The title "Lord Almighty" (Pantokrator) occurs in the New Testament only here in 2 Cor 6:18 and nine times in Rev.

Answer 7

For this particular verse, you really need to read a bit to understand the context:


14 Don't be unequally yoked with unbelievers, for what fellowship have righteousness and iniquity? Or what fellowship has light with darkness?

15 What agreement has Christ with Belial? Or what portion has a believer with an unbeliever?

16 What agreement has a temple of God with idols? For you are a temple of the living God. Even as God said, "I will dwell in them, and walk in them; and I will be their God, and they will be my people."

17 Therefore, "'Come out from among them, and be separate,' says the Lord.'Touch no unclean thing. I will receive you.

18 I will be to you a Father. You will be to me sons and daughters,' says the Lord Almighty."


Here, God is talking about maintaining a distance from unbelievers, and in the verse asks a couple of rhetorical questions:

'What fellowship has light with darkness?'
'What agreement (or concord or treaty) has Christ with Belial? Or what portion has a believer with an unbeliever?'
'What agreement has a temple of God with idols?' - - -etc., etc.,

The answer - none. because he then says 'Come out from among them, and be separate,' says the Lord.'Touch no unclean thing. I will receive you.'


The point that is being made here is that as a Christian, you don't associate yourself with unbelievers or with evil. Otherwise, you can be lead astray.

Answer 8

"What harmony is there between Christ and Belial? What does a believer have in common with an unbeliever?"

No it's saying they do not have any harmony. It's a rhetorical question where the answer is "obviously none". This is why context is so important. Read verses 14-18.

Answer 9

That verse taken in context is "an expainer" for the verse that came before it and happens to be one of my favorites!

Do not be yoked together with unbelievers. For what do righteousness and wickedness have in common? Or what fellowship can light have with darkness? -2 Corinthians 6:14

The whole passage is devoted to the idea that there is a night and day difference between evil and righteosness and they cannot be combined!

This is the Heavenly reason why Christians should not marry unbelievers...

This is the Heavenly reason God told the Israelites to completely irradicate Gods enemies from the land he was giving them and not to make treaties with those around him; to preserve Israel and prevent intermarriage.

This is the Heavenly reason why we need to keep the church free from sexual immorailty and expel those who refuse to repent or change their life. (not applicable to visitors)

As for a pact between Satan and God, I would say that God has granted him dominion over this world to do what he wills and Satan has gladly accepted and does what he will.

Answer 10

|Neither Catholic nor Protestant nor any other Christian theology believes in a "pure evil". According to Christianity in general, all that is of God is considered good, so "pure evil" is literally non-existence.

Now, within the contexts of the verses that suuround the one you quote, the Bible is saying their is no accord between Jesus and Belial, and no part for the infidel, just as there is no place for idols in the temple, and light and dark don't mix.