The Nephilim were marrying the daughters of men and having children by them. I know that the Nephilim were giants, they are also referenced in Numbers and 1samuel, but does anybody have any ideas about who these people were? I've heard theories that the Nephilim were the 1/3 of the angels that fell, but I'm not buying the idea that they were reproducing. Anyways, what do you guys and gals think?
2006-08-28 17:43:53 · 13 answers · asked by invaderzim 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Those Who Cause [Others] to Fall Down
This is a transliteration of the Hebrew word nephi‧lim′, plural in its three occurrences in the Bible. (Ge 6:4; Nu 13:33 [twice]) It evidently stems from the causative form of the Hebrew verb na‧phal′ (fall) as found, for example, in 2 Kings 3:19; 19:7.
Bible commentators, considering verse 4, have offered several suggestions as to the identity of these Nephilim. Some have thought that the derivation of the name indicates that the Nephilim had fallen from heaven, that is, that they were ‘fallen angels’ who mated with women to produce “mighty ones . . . the men of fame.” Other scholars, focusing their attention particularly on the statement “and also after that” (vs 4), have said the Nephilim were not the ‘fallen angels’ or the “mighty ones,” since the Nephilim “proved to be in the earth in those days” before the sons of God had relations with women. These latter scholars hold the opinion that the Nephilim were simply wicked men like Cain—robbers, bullies, and tyrants who roamed the earth until they were destroyed by the Flood. Still another group, taking into consideration the context of verse 4, conclude that the Nephilim were not themselves angels, but were the hybrid offspring resulting from materialized angels having intercourse with the daughters of men.
Certain Bible translations adjust the location of the phrase “and also after that,” placing it near the beginning of verse 4, thus identifying the Nephilim with the “mighty ones,” the gib‧bo‧rim′, mentioned in the latter part of the verse. For example: “In those days, as well as afterward, there were giants [Heb., han‧nephi‧lim′] on the earth, who were born to the sons of the gods whenever they had intercourse with the daughters of men; these were the heroes [Heb., hag‧gib‧bo‧rim′] who were men of note in days of old.”—Ge 6:4, AT; see also Mo, NIV, and TEV.
The Greek Septuagint also suggests that both the “Nephilim” and “mighty ones” are identical by using the same word gi′gan‧tes (giants) to translate both expressions.
Reviewing the account, we see that verses 1 to 3 tell of “the sons of the true God” taking wives and of Jehovah’s statement that he was going to end his patience with men after 120 years. Verse 4 then speaks of the Nephilim proving to be in the earth “in those days,” evidently the days when Jehovah made the statement. Then it shows that this situation continued “after that, when the sons of the true God continued to have relations with the daughters of men,” and describes in more detail the results of the union of “the sons of the true God” with women
2006-08-28 17:54:54 · answer #1 · answered by Memo V 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Nephilim were supposedly the offspring of angels who left heaven to take physical bodies so they could have relations with the hot Earth girls. These Frankenstien's monsters were supposed to have been evil giants who terrorized the world. The flood destroyed the Nephilim and God made it impossible for the angels to do such a thing anymore to close this loophole.
2006-08-28 17:47:33 · answer #2 · answered by eat 4 · 2⤊ 1⤋
good for you in not agreeing with the reproduction thing. This is a tough one though because nobody actually knows who they were, or even what happened to them.
Some have suggested that "sons of God" means that they were humans. And as I remember, they were not something God approved of (behaviors?). I read somewhere once that Nephilim actually means "fallen ones", but then again, everyone is a fallen one (the fall of creation). So nobody really knows.
But when you look at all the lables and superstitions and other beliefs people had (even back then), I'd suggest that the reason they're given that title was in order to make it a point that even though their physical features showed them as different, they were still "only human".
2006-08-28 17:56:00 · answer #3 · answered by Turmoyl 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well this is what my bible says about it all:
Some hold that these "sons of God" were the "angels which kept not their first estate" (Jude 6). It is asserted that the title is in the O. T. exclusively used of angels. But this is an error (Isa. xliii.6). Angles are spoken of in a sexless way. No female angels are mentioned in Scripture, and we are expressly told that marriage is unknown among angels (Mt. xxii.30). The uniform Hebrew and Christian interpretation has been that the verse 2 marks the breaking down of the separation between the godly line of Seth and the godless line of Cain, and so the failure of the testimony to Jehovah committed to the line of Seth (Gen. iv.26).
So I think what it is basically saying is that Seth's line is godly and Cain's was not and the two joined together. I could be wrong though but that is what it is saying to me.
2006-08-28 18:00:46 · answer #4 · answered by Mawyemsekhmet 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The angels were created by God. Even Lucifer. They are all sons of God. (small s). We are sons and daughters of God too, because God is Mans creator. But we are also sons and daughters of Man as well. Jesus was the Son of God,(big S), but He was also the Son of Man as well. Because He was born of a woman. Because Jesus was conceived by God's Holy Spirit, which is also God, Jesus is God. Jesus is the Word of God made flesh.
The Nephilim were the offspring, and were hybrid, but they were also very wicked. This lead to the destruction of man by the flood of Noah's time.
2006-08-28 18:01:05 · answer #5 · answered by classyjazzcreations 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just another myth... and a very strange one at that. It seems to me that these are a class of angel... now, i may be wrong but isn't it true that angels do not have genitalia? How could they "take wives" and have them give birth to the "giants" whatever they were.
Secondly if god created the angels and they are able to sin, why would he think he'd get it right on the second go-round with us? Aren't we even more imperfect than the angels?
It all just makes absolutely no sense.
2006-08-28 17:49:54 · answer #6 · answered by ChooseRealityPLEASE 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I read quite a detailed sermon on how the nephilim were fallen angels and i am of that opinion as well. i wish i still had the sermon and I could forward it to you but i don't have it now.
2006-08-28 18:35:33 · answer #7 · answered by snail 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The sons of God mentioned are actually Priesthood holders that are mortals that are faithful to God, daughters of men refers to "worldly" women, women who don't worship God nor respect him. When they use the word Giant it doesn't refer to someone of Great height, it means someone who was mighty in battle. This is what I believe and it makes since or I wouldn't teach it.
2006-08-28 17:50:46 · answer #8 · answered by princezelph 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Copied from the Greek myths about the sons of Gods mating with women.
2006-08-28 17:47:28 · answer #9 · answered by October 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
if they were fallen angles, why would only humans suffer the consequences of the flood and not angles. God would be punishing the wrong ones. God does not err.
see response of Mawyemsekmet above.
2014-12-20 12:59:51 · answer #10 · answered by Nina 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋