The question should be, who actually wrote it? was it indeed Mathew? or someone else?
2006-08-28 08:24:29
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answer #1
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answered by judy_r8 6
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JP,
The claims that the Gospels were written no earlier than 150 BC is absurd. Many passages are quoted in documents before that date such as Justin Martyr's writings, Papias and Polycarp not to mention others.
Most authorities place the period from 70 -90's AD with John as the latest and Revelations circa 96 AD
It was a good try, the 'Q documents' reference makes it sound authentic.
2006-08-28 08:38:25
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answer #2
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answered by wehwalt 3
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It's a common misconception that the Gospels were penned by the people they're named after. In fact, archeologically, there are only two gospels in the Bible -- The P source (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) and the Q source (John). The P source gospels tell frankly the same story with the same deviations one would expect statistically from a few centuries of oral tradition. Only John, the Q source, stands alone.
At best guess, the Gospels were written no earlier than 150CE.
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Ignore punkdrunkard, btw. While I won't doubt his assertion of 70 years after the death of Yeshua, the P & Q sources of the four Gospels is well known even in apologetic circles. Doing some research to pull up sources, I see that archeologists have updated the theory some, but here's two links describing the phenomenon I'm refering to:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Q_document
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two-source_hypothesis
2006-08-28 08:25:46
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Matthew was inspired by what he saw to write what he experienced. He saw God in the flesh, Jesus of Nazereth, the Christ, and the many wonderful miracles he performed. He wrote it down. He was definitely inspired by the Holy Spirit. "tickled" makes no sense whatsoever.
2006-08-28 08:27:44
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answer #4
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answered by punkdrunkard 3
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i got your point brother.
you mean to say. why does mathew write about himself as a second person. and not as himself.
this pattern you will find in through out the bible.
Moses wrote the first five books. but he does not mention about himself as himself but as a second person.
Even Jesus when he preached so many times he reffered to himself as son of man but he always mentioned it as second person.
Mathew 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there believe it not.
24:24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall show great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
24:25 Behold, I have told you before.
24:26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.
24:27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
but your point still remains why, let me sum up
1. all scripture is inspiration of God, not refering to himself(writer) is an inspiration from God.
2. while writing about themselves if they mention about themselves as i. its no way seems to be writing on behalf of God.
3. mentioning i did this , i went there. seems more selfish, disgrace ful, also it testifies of ourselves and does not testify of God.
etc. thank you.
2006-08-28 08:55:51
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answer #5
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answered by vicky India,Punjab 3
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Paul wrote the gospels.
2006-08-28 08:26:19
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answer #6
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answered by Sweetchild Danielle 7
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it might of been the ghost of chrismas present or of christmas future
2006-08-28 08:27:53
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answer #7
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answered by andrew w 7
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