\the apocrypha is all there in the Catholic Bible. The Protestants do not object to any Verse... but they assert it is not an 'Inspired Text'. Although, the test of 'Inspiration is not defined by nonCatholics.
2006-08-28 04:52:35
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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The KJV of 1611 actually included the books of the Apocrypha, as had all typical preceding English language versions of the Bible since 1382. Around 1600 the Puritans had begun requesting these books be excluded from the Geneva Bible, and they were eventually successful in having them 'purged' from the standard KJV. It was not until 1827, however, that both the British Bible Society and the American Bible Society "standardised" on definitive exclusion of these books.
I have read most of the Apocrypha, and the only objections I can guess "modern Christians" would have to it are the things it seems to imply about Israel, (If the rest of the Bible is true, Israel probably shouldn't still be there), along with some of the "supernatural" stuff, but it's no better or worse than the OT with it's talking donkeys and general debauchery.
2006-08-28 05:01:14
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The nation of Israel treated the Deuterocanonical books with respect, but never accepted them as true books of the Hebrew Bible. The early Christian church debated the status of the Apocrypha, but almost always rejected them from being included in the Bible. Probably the most conclusive argument against the Deuterocanonical books being included in the Bible is the fact that the New Testament nowhere quotes or alludes to any of the Apocryphal books.
The Apocrypha / Deuterocanonical books teach many things that are not true and are not historically accurate. The Roman Catholic church officially added the Apocrypha to their Bible after the Protestant Reformation because it supports some of the things that the Roman Catholic church believes and practices which are not in agreement with the Bible. Some of what the Apocrypha says is true and correct, but if you read it, you have to treat it as a fallible historical document, not as the inspired, authoritative Word of God.
2006-08-28 04:56:25
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answer #3
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answered by Jen 3
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There are several "apocrypha" omitted from many versions of the bible. In this particular instance, the Old Testament Apocrypha contained support for the Catholic practices of selling indulgences and purgatory. I'm thinking the protestants weren't too happy about that so they got rid of them.
2006-08-28 04:52:40
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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I wholeheartedly have self belief interior the Bible, yet no longer the Apocrypha. The Apocrypha for me has to many fake thoughts, and it would not make experience. The Bible is clever to me, and that i've got self belief it is genuine because of the fact Moses, and Paul the two tell approximately their hardships, and struggles in existence, so as that individuals can earnings.
2016-10-01 00:08:30
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answer #5
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answered by minick 4
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When putting together the Christian bible, Catholics used the greek translation of the old testament that the Jews used. This had all the books in it. When Martin Luther started the Protestant movement, he chose to use the Hebrew version of the old testament, which that sect of Jewish people took out the 7 books when Christianity started to become prominent in the world, around 70 AD i believe. Catholics talked about removing the books in I believe it was either the council of trent or vatican 1? I'm not sure. There is no reason some of the books are there. they were just historical texts, but because the books were there in the beginning of Christianity, there they remain.
2006-08-28 05:06:55
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answer #6
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answered by me 2
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the omission of the Apocrypha has nothing to do with a verse or phrase. it was not inspired by God to be put into the Bible. I happened in between the time of the Jewish writers of the old testament. and the Gentile writers of the new testament by men who were not told by God to write them. I have nothing against any Catholics or anyone of the Greek orthodoxy. You are Christians just as much as I am. I just do not agree that those books belong to the Bible.
2006-08-28 05:01:07
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answer #7
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answered by God's Servant 3
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The books of the Bible were made canonical because it passed certain standards that the Apocryphal books do not. Foremost is the authorship. The canonical books that were accepted should be authored by the prophets or the Apostles, or at least with first-hand connection to them. This aspect alone greatly reduces the number of Apocryphal books that can be accepted. Secondly, the book should endorsed, either by Jesus, His Apostles or the early Christian church. Jesus quoted many Old Testament writings. Peter endorsed Paul's works. And the new testament was greatly accepted by the early church. The Apocryphal books however, was never accepted as canonical by any of them. hence it cannot be part of the Holy Scriptures.
However, that being said, the Apocryphal books still holds historical value. Its just not part of the inspired Word of God.
2006-08-28 05:00:26
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answer #8
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answered by mack-mack 3
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Even the Catholic Bible has its own apocrypha, like the Apocolypse of St. Peter. What it comes down to is that the protestants needed to seperate themseleves from the Catholic Church, and therefore needed a different bible.
The Catholics and the Eastern Orthodox have different bibles, as do the Syrian Christians, and the Coptics, and even the Nestorians. Different bibles are a part of the faith.
Protestants still fail to realize, however, that faith unto itself is not enough. They forget that it is the Grace of God that places one's name in the book of life. Grace is earned through faith, repentence, and contrition.
2006-08-28 05:00:07
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answer #9
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answered by lundstroms2004 6
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Here, just read it for yourself: Why the Apocrypha Isn't in the Bible. Not one of the apocryphal books is ...
The King James translators never considered the Apocrypha the word of God. ...
http://www.jesus-is-lord.com/apocryph.htm
2006-08-28 04:53:37
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answer #10
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answered by raininmyshoe 3
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The Apocrypha was left in the Catholic Bible, but taken out of the Protestant Bible. It probably wasn't a matter of offensive, rather than space and credibility of the stories.
2006-08-28 04:50:58
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answer #11
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answered by GLSigma3 6
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