"Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem."Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16.
His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters
of Jerusalem."
In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad
(pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. In English translation they have even translated the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as "altogether lovely", but in the Old Testament in Hebrew, the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is yet present.
It is mentioned in the book of Isaiah chapter 29 verse 12:
"And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned."
When Archangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra - "Read", he replied, "I am not learned".
2006-08-28 00:30:06 · 13 answers · asked by afrasiyab k 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes , bible mentioned that mohammed is the last prophet for humanity
2006-08-28 00:35:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
no, there is no mention of the name "mohammed" in the Bible because there is no need for "mohammed" and the quran. The line of prophetic revelation goes through the line of Isaac from Abraham, the line of Ishmael has no relevance to prophesy, so, unless Mohammed was a decendent of Isaac, there's no way that he could have been a prophet. Let us remember that the angels who told Abraham of God's promise was for the offspring of Abraham and Sarah, not any other woman.
2006-08-28 04:03:32 · answer #2 · answered by Kuya Bryan 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Mu Ham Med rejected any thought of co-existance, or of appeasement, to huge enemies of his immagination.
That Old Testament religion of hatred and rape is one that is attempting to overtake the world. The rest of the world 'moved-on".
Those people are here to enslave, and, murder; as was common in the days of large bands of bandits on the trade routes. Today we call them pirates.
They have no mandates for co-existance, no platitudes for peace.
All is in the style of 7th century murder, rape, and more rape of the dead corpses.
If this weren't true, then, why are the mullahs and Ayatollahs, and, Clerics, all so silent? The one or two who did speak, were subject to a Fatwa!
Fatwa is a death sentence, with reward, imposed upon all who are in Islam!
That fact, alone, should educate the wise about this!
Co-lateral works, diaries, biographies of the 7th century and to date, all illustrate that in the most graphic terms. Wives threw themselves into the funeral pyres of their husbands, as the Moslems could not rape a burned body!
2006-08-28 00:42:27 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Muhammed arose in 600 ad 400 years after the last evangelist. How could they have known of him?
2006-08-28 00:34:38 · answer #4 · answered by peter gunn 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
muhammad's name was not mentioned in any way in the bible, muslims try to find out any way to confirm that he was mentioned or prophesized in the bible, but i want to ask them how come you refer to the bible to confirm the prophecy of muhammad while you claim undoughtedly that the bible is corrupted!!! or is it corrupted for what it is says about jesus, while it is the true uncorrupted bible when it comes in any invented way to interpret anything related to muhammad???
2006-08-30 15:57:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. He is referred to as the Comfortor. Ahmed in Hebrew. Paracletuese in Greek.
2006-08-28 00:34:33 · answer #6 · answered by LeBlanc 6 · 1⤊ 3⤋
Would he perhaps be Abraham, whom God asked to sacrifice his son Isaac on the alter?
2006-08-28 00:37:58 · answer #7 · answered by ariel 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yes there is - in the bible he is called Fred.
2006-08-28 00:32:52 · answer #8 · answered by Gallivanting Galactic Gadfly 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Hello. Te answer to this question is NO.
2006-08-28 00:38:58 · answer #9 · answered by lesleypierre 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I'm rarely read bible!
2006-08-28 00:33:01 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋