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When a person was taking a bath instead of having hot water brought to the bath would they be able to have it come from a faucet?

2006-08-24 07:47:06 · 12 answers · asked by m e r e d i th 4 in Education & Reference Other - Education

12 answers

For the wealthy people heaters were available in that era however,
common folk designed their own heaters usually consisting of steel tubs or large pots sitting on the wooden chip ovens.

Hope this helps...

Acerone

2006-08-24 07:53:39 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There are houses in North London that are now worth about two million pounds that in the early 1900's were what was known as tenements. About fifteen families, mostly Irish, lived in them with as many as 6 - 8 people to one room. There were no such things as baths. The entire house was served by one cold water tap and one outside toilet. In 'better class' working family homes, usually of two bedrooms, a large metal tub was the bath and it was heated with pots of water boiled on the gas stove. The younger members of the family were lucky to get one bath a year, usually around Christmas. Sometimes two to the bath and the same water was used to bath all the children. This went on up to just after the second world war in the 1950's. So you see Mer, the only 'shower' was when the rain fell suddenly. How things have changed............ that is why I absolutely hate it when some talk about the 'good old days'............... I could go on but I think I have said enough, take care and God bless..........

2006-08-24 07:56:56 · answer #2 · answered by thomasrobinsonantonio 7 · 0 0

Running hot water was possible even before that. Faucets were even common in antiquity, although not necessarily with hot water. But it was possible earlier China, India and Japan.

2006-08-24 07:50:14 · answer #3 · answered by regis_cabral 4 · 0 0

Well, let's see... the Romans had hot running water in 900AD. So, yeah; I think it was POSSIBLE. But that doesn't mean the Avg. joe could afford to have it... there are still people living in the back woods in the USA that do not have hot running water!

2006-08-24 07:55:08 · answer #4 · answered by Mark MacIver 4 · 0 0

The Romans were experts at hot running water, so yes.

2006-08-24 07:54:10 · answer #5 · answered by ii337 3 · 0 0

Yes but only for the extreamly wealthy, and fausets were available since the greeks, also Its just using hot water instead.

2006-08-24 07:49:38 · answer #6 · answered by windfishfighter 3 · 0 0

working warm water over glass jar lids would reason the steel lid to amplify extra desirable than the glass jar even at secure warm temperature yet extra so if the glass jar has too little time to warmth up. develop of the lid reduces the grip of the lid led to while tightening the lid slightly deforms the lid threads. warm water would additionally 'soften' any product between the lid and jar threads performing as glue and soften the rubber seal reducing its resistance to efforts to eliminate the threaded lid. See the link for the table of thermal expansions for glass and steel.

2016-12-17 16:34:42 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Nope, there was no way to heat it with external forces. Mom heated it on the stove, actually a stove was equipped with a water storage unit, you kept it full for washing etc.

2006-08-24 07:50:30 · answer #8 · answered by Wild Bill 2 · 0 0

Yes they had hot water heaters then, but they weren't automatic. You might search for yourself under water heaters and similar key words.

2006-08-24 07:49:08 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

well blacks went to the nearest lake, and for those balcks who were more fortunate, they had the BIIG brown tub buckets you see on some movies that they fill up with this puller thing... but as for whites, they had the tubs{the small ones you see on movies, not as big as the ones we have now}

2006-08-24 07:51:43 · answer #10 · answered by Schweet 1 · 0 0

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