In A Tale Of Two Cities. All his previous books were set in only England.
2006-08-23 16:03:37 · 3 answers · asked by apocalypstick 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
Why not? It was one of the most important things going on in his day. It was earth-shaking. When the Americans broke free from English king George, who was distinctly nuts (hereditary disease), that was one thing, but for such a long and important line of European kings to get so utterly overthrown was disturbing. What was also disturbing was the result. Nothing since the fall of the Roman Empire had moved their world so much. It was scary. Then too, part of the story was how the English cope with it. It was like a subtle, "But for the grace of God it will happen to us too."
2006-08-23 16:14:30 · answer #1 · answered by Rabbit 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because:
1-he was alive then.
2-he read a book (sorry,can't remember the name which made him write the novel)
3-it was extraordinary then for people to fight and disagree with their rulers. because it was though then that the king was god's Representative.
2006-08-23 23:11:11 · answer #2 · answered by cyrus 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't know. go ask him!
2006-08-23 23:14:16 · answer #3 · answered by jackfmlover1331 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋