Can a Muslim man marry a child girl who has not attained puberty?

Question

There is a verse in Quran [65:4] that says: "if you divorce a woman who HAS NOT ATTAINED PUBERTY yet (monthly period), she can not marry anyone else for three months after you divorce her".

1- Does this mean that a Muslim man can marry a woman (child) who has not attained puberty yet?
2- Does this have anything to do with the story about prophet Muhammed who married 9-year old girl (Aisha)?

Answer 1

Yes, it is still possible and does happen today in Muslim countries. Though not all Muslims practice the Quaran as written, those who do practice it to the letter do, in essence abuse women and children. Unlike other religions, Islam has not evolved much, if at all, since the days of Muhammed.

Answer 2

First of all you have the verse all wrong, the versse should read: "And those who no longer expect menstruation among your women---if you doubt, then their period is 3 months, and those who have not menstruated. And for those who are pregnant, their term is until they give birth. And whoever fears Allah----He will make for him of his matter ease."
You took a verse from the Quran and left dome of it out and added your own interpretation to it. The verse is actually talking about the process of divorce. When a man and a women get divorced the women must wait 3 months before getting remarried (to make sure she isn't pregnant). The verse is telling the circumstances in which a women should wait at least 3 months before getting remarried. I don't know where you got the part saying "HAS NOT ATTAINED PUBERTY YET", that is nowhere in the Quran. No Muslims cannot marry anyone who has not obtained puberty. Stop trying to corrupt peoples minds about Islam.

Answer 3

for God's sake dont spread false information around. the verse you have put is absolutley wrong. the verses states as"


'Such of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses, for them the prescribed period, if ye have any doubts, is three months, and for those who have no courses (it is the same): for those who carry (life within their wombs), their period is until they deliver their burdens: and for those who fear Allah, He will make their path easy."

http://quran.al-islam.com/Targama/DispTargam.asp?nType=1&nSeg=0&l=eng&nSora=65&nAya=4&t=eng
another link for your satisfaction and more information.

http://www.usc.edu/dept/MSA/quran/065.qmt.html

now the explanation to all above is, that man can not divorce his wife during her periods(who have courses, means monthly courses/periods). coz islam hates divorce and it gives u full apportunity to think about your extreme decision of divorce. if a girl is divorced when she was in her periods, there r no chances that she will concieve his baby. and so wont be able to have the waiting period of three months that is actually given to husband n wife to think about divorce decision.

2nd part of the verse - if she is clean, already had her periods(who have no courses/monthly periods), taken bath after her periods and last intercourse, and then she is divorced, still divorce will not take place untill 3 months(3 feminine monthly periods). these 3 months r given to make sure that if the lady is not pragnant. if she is pragnant then the divorce has to wait till the baby is delivered.

i hope its clear now. by the way i m happy that u ppl take much interest in islam. and discuss the issues.

oh for the 2nd part of ur question. i have already discuss this issue much in my questions n answers. to be short, Mohammad was aysha's husband. they got engaged when aysha was 6 and marriage took place after 3 years, when she achieved the puberty. the most important thing to be noted is Mohammad PBUH doesnt have any kid from aysha. this relation was more spiritual then physical. aysha was a great lady and she was shown by angel Gibrael to Mohammad. aysha proved to be the greatest source of Hadiths(Prophet sayings) meanings.

Answer 4

Of yours? Some girls are through puberty at 13 (although rare I imagine). You see that as ok?

****I have no problem with a big age gap, my own partner is 28 years my senior, but I was wise enough to choose to be with him lol, I certainly didn't do it because my father wanted it, HA.****

Answer 5

The fact that Muslim scholars overwhelmingly agree that the minimum age of marriage is puberty. This can be clearly seen in the Qur'anic exegesis of the phrase "they reach the (age of) marriage" found in Surat al-Nisa' 4:6. In regards to this, four of the well-known classical commentators have the following to say [Click here to view an image of the following statements in the original Arabic]:
Tafsir al-Tabari: Clearly states that "And when He said 'they reach the (age of) marriage' then He means they reached puberty (al-hulum)"—and he lists numerous references.

Tafsir al-Qurtubi: In regards to the statement "until they reach the (age of) marriage", Imam al-Qurtubi says, "meaning puberty (al-hulum). And said the Most High, 'When children reach puberty' (al-Nur 59),meaning puberty (al-balugh) and state of marriage (wa hal al-nikah)."

Tafsir Ibn Kathir: In explaining, "until they reach the (age of) marriage", he states that "Mujahid said meaning puberty (al-hulum)".

Tafsir al-Jalalayn: Contains the explanation that: "'And Challenge' test 'the orphans' before they reach puberty in their religion and their conduct 'until they reach the (age of) marriage', meaning they reach puberty or the age of fifteen years old according to the Shafi'is".
The above ruling regarding the age of marriage is mutually supported by an authentic (hassan) narration in Sunan al-Tirmidhi's Kitab al-Nikah,where 'Aishah herself says: "When the girl reaches nine years of age she is a woman". Reason dictates that this is because she was referring to her own experience in which she reached puberty at the age of nine. If this wasn't the case, all of the just mentioned tafsirs would seemingly need to state that "until they reach the (age of) marriage" means "nine" and not "puberty".


In steadfast consistence with the above points, Surat al-Nur 24:59, clearly shows that children are considered adults when they reach puberty, since it says "And when the children among you come to puberty (al-hulum), then let them (also) ask for permission, as do those senior to them (in age)". Indeed, this is a clear Qur'anic reference that the age of discretion (i.e. adulthood) was identified with the onset of puberty.


The fact that the various hadiths clearly state that 'Aishah—radi Allahu 'anha—was "betrothed (zawaj)" when she was "six years old" and "consummated (nikah)" her marriage when she was "nine years old", clearly begs the question: "What, pray tell, were her parents waiting for?" Well the obvious answer to why they waited some three years between the betrothal and the consummation of the marriage is that they were waiting for their daughter to reach adulthood—which is, as already demonstrated above, clearly defined as puberty.

The above question is answered directly and unambiguously on page 128 of The History of al-Tabari — Volume IX, where it states that "As for 'A'ishah, when he married her she was very young and not yet ready for consummation"—which clearly proves that they were waiting for her to reach puberty (i.e. to be biologically "ready"). Likewise, the statement that 'A'ishah—radi Allahu 'anha—was "not yet ready for consummation" would undoubtedly be nonsensical in a social context where marriage to prepubescent children was allowed. Thus it both severely undermines the merely circumstantial evidence which has been brought forward in an ineffectual attempt to prove the contrary, and serves as strong proof that the marriage in question certainly did not involve a prepubescent girl.

The honest conclusion after considering all of the above mutually supporting evidence as a whole, including a statement from 'Aishah herself, is that the marriage took place when 'Aishah—radi Allahu 'anha—had become a "woman"—meaning that she had reached puberty.



http://www.mereislam.info/2006/06/more-on-young-marriage-of-aishah.html

Answer 6

No he can not marry any girl child of mine who has not attained puberty.

Answer 7

this is way to young to marred a 9 yr old child its being call a pervert & child molester young children dont know what they want in life this is sick.i dont care what religion it is.its best to find someone around your own age.

Answer 8

He married her when she was 6, but nice guy that he was, he didn't molest her until she was 9. Apparently, not only can you marry a young child, molest her, you can also divorce her for a younger kid.

Answer 9

Only if he's a pedophile who won't mind spending the rest of his pathetic life in prison as someones *****.
And they wonder why people dislike them so much...

Answer 10

That is disturbing on many levels....
And then they wonder why people object to the "Religion of Peace"