Could a virus mutate into a person's genetic structure?

Question

This is no more than theory, but I've encountered a few medical mysteries. This one has been the biggest one.

Everything I've read says that all cold sores are caused by the Herpes Simplex virus. This is another piece of info I've found: "Herpes is a DNA-type virus, inserting its DNA directly into the dendritic nerve endings of the skin, which then leads along nerve fibers to the nucleus of the nerve cell. Once the viral information is inserted into the cell's nucleus, this blending of viral genetic information with human genetic information is permanent."

What are the chances that somehow this form of genetic blending could spread to the point of reproduction?

Now for the reason I'm asking. My husband should have Herpes... transmittable to anyone who gets in contact with one of his sores. But so far it only seems to be transmittable genetically. His father was the first, not transmitting to either of his wives (there was a divorce in between). -(more info soon)-

So, my husband first started getting diaper rash when he was sick and in stressful situations, which slowly started turning into cold sores as he got older. Now he gets cold sores which appear in the same situations, that have never been transmitted to his mother or myself, nor any girlfriends he's ever had. My son is showing signs that he too has inherited this. How is it that cold sores could be passed down like this without the women ever getting infected. Also, my husband's sister does not have this problem, so it's definately in the males.

Is it possible for cold sores to be genetic, or is it always caused by herpes? And if so, could this be a mutation of the herpes virus?

Please do keep in mind that the major mystery is as to why no women in the family, or have dated the family, have ever had herpes or any signs thereof. My husband has just mentioned that his grandfather has also had this (possibly the first one who did) without passing it to anyone but his son. I don't know about diaper rash with anyone but my husband and out son, and really, I'm not ready to ask quite yet. I -am- thinking of having the cold sores analyzed the next time my husband gets one to see if there's any chance it isn't herpes at all, but that still seems strange.

Answer 1

IF it is the herpes virus then the main answer is no.

I'm with you, have it biopsied and tested to see what it really is, I'm surprised that you haven't already discussed this with your doctor to have it done.

Explain to him/her what is going on and what your suspicions are and see what he/she recommends.

Answer 2

Mutations are always possible, that's part of how we, as humans, came to exist. Viruses can easily mutate to become a part of the human genome, but having done this, they would alter that human in different ways, mostly fatal. If your husband has a case of Herpes which is transmittable only through human reproduction but he is not contagious himself, it could simply mean that he is whats called a dormant carrier. Viruses can live within a human body and never become active. Some people are even immune to the viruses they spread among others. I will say this, if your husband received the herpes virus genetically from his father, but is not contagious himself, he would be a very rare individual and his blood may even hold the cure to the Herpes virus itself.

Answer 3

As you actually have several questions that need to be asked here, I will try to answer as many as I can. First of all, a virus is far too small to mutate into a "complete" human genetic structure. The virus can and does incorporate itself into the nuclear material of the cells - where the genetic material is stored. This virus can and does infect the reproductive organs, but if a baby, which has a poorly formed immune system, gets the Herpes Simplex virus, it will probably either die, be blinded, or be severly brain damaged - over 1,000 babies a year are affected in this way (still think Herpes jokes are funny now???). There are at least 8 types of Herpes Simplex viruses - they are not all the same. One of them causes chicken pox (varicella zoster - type 8), one of them causes oral lesions (type 1), one of them causes genital lesions (type 2 - but they can be interchanged as to parts of the body affected because of oral sexual transmission), and one of them is strongly suspected in causing multiple sclerosis (type 6) because it has been found in over 80% of affected & biopsied tissue samples. The one that causes chicken pox in children (and adults) also causes shingles, which is extremely painful (fortunately there is now a vaccine for this which costs about $150 and from what I've been told is worth every penny to prevent the pain from shingles). The main point of what you are asking, however, seems to be will this actually be passed on to an offspring through the genetic code, and the answer is no, but the virus can be spread to offspring by the same "old-fashioned" mechanisms - transmission from mother to baby during delivery. As to having the virus actually incorporated into the genetic code of the offspring, no. You are "mixing up", for lack of better terms, "meiotic" and "mitotic" cells. The "mitotic" cells ARE affected IF the parent cell is infected - this is, in part, how viruses propagate. Meiotic cells are the sexual reproduction cells, and if they are infected the baby will usually be so severely damaged in its genetic code that it simply will not survive. To truly clear up this mystery for your family you will need to consult with a qualified physician, and have some tests taken. BTW: the genital herpes virus is not always transmitted because the lesions are not always present, so sometimes unprotected sex does not result in infection of the partner. However, viral "shedding" can occur at anytime, so have the man wear a latex condom if there is any doubt at all about transmissability. Best wishes on getting better.

Answer 4

No, your husband got herpes from contact. It is not genetic.