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and male.
This is a q for christians mostly.
I know He is our role-model.

Is there more to be "true man" than this?

Your thoughts please.

2006-08-22 07:56:06 · 2 answers · asked by zorro 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

male: in Jesus' case that is.

2006-08-22 07:58:22 · update #1

2 answers

My understanding is that by being "true man", Jesus was thus susceptible to sin just like any other human being (man is used in the generic, as in 'mankind').

God decided that the requirement for salvation was that there be a perfect sacrifice made for all sins. A perfect sacrifice by God's definition (which is the one that counts!) would involve one without sin. We, ourselves, cannot be without sin, so it could not be one of us. God would have known this from the beginning and thus supplied that one perfect sacrifice for us - Jesus.

To answer your question, then, Jesus was always to be the perfect sacrifice that God required. Jesus needed to live on this Earth as "true man" so that he would have the ability to sin. By living a human life without sin, Jesus then fulfilled the requirement for us when he was put to death on the cross.

2006-08-22 08:24:16 · answer #1 · answered by MikeG 2 · 1 0

It means he is really human (as opposed to an apparition or just in human shape). In the early days of Christianity a lot of people thought Jesus was a spirit or something, so this clarification had to be made. Now it is the opposite, a lot of people think Jesus was a man but nor really God.
The word translated as "man" here really means "human" or "person." It used to be common even in English to use the word "man" to mean "person" or "human being." This is called the "generic masculine" form. Some languages (e.g. Spanish) don't even have a neuter gender for nouns, so they are used to the fact that grammatical "gender" isn't necessarily the same as physiological "sex." Jesus is a male; he had to be one sex or the other to be a "true human."

2006-08-22 15:22:25 · answer #2 · answered by The First Dragon 7 · 0 0

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