If someone had a visa until 2008, and there were no retrictions noted on the visa stamp, could this ever be subject to retrictions, i.e. having a full-time job, etc.?
Thanks
2006-08-22 07:11:08 · 3 answers · asked by Isabel 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
A visa is not a free pass to do anything you want. Every country in the world issues visas for specific purposes only; you can't do what the visa doesn't allow.
The US, for example, has categories of visas from A through V, each for a different kind of visitor doing different things. A person with a "B" visa cannot work, study, or stay longer than a normal tourist or business visit.
If you are going to visit the US, you were given the correct type of visa for the purpose you stated on your application. If you try to do anything else, you could have a lot of trouble.
2006-08-22 07:32:39 · answer #1 · answered by dognhorsemom 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think you need to look a bit further, and work from the starting point of why that sort of visa was issued to that person in the first place, or why that sort of Leave to Enter was endorsed in the passport. Leave to Enter the United Kingdom is normally given in writing, so there is a good chance that if there is no written prohibition on taking employment that person may be able lawfully to work. However, the story has to be consistent all the way through and not hang on just one bit of information in isolation.
2006-08-22 08:26:59 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well, theoriticly u must not change ur mind when u enter in a country. if u come as a tourist by exemple, say and stick with your tourist mind and look like a tourist...
once u are IN the county, u can work illegally, marry for a green card, apply for a ssn, etc...or be an illegal immigrant...
2006-08-22 08:25:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋