2006-08-22 06:54:25 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Probably because the word came into common English after the vowel shift that seemed to occur in Southern England in the mid to late eighteenth century.
2006-08-22 07:01:30 · answer #1 · answered by Michael 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It has to do with the sound that follows the vowel. "n" is a sonorant sound like "r", "s" is an obstruent sound. The "r" only shows up in front of sonorants.
2006-08-22 14:38:39 · answer #2 · answered by Taivo 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ask Henry Higgins, I can't suggest the answer.
2006-08-22 14:02:12 · answer #3 · answered by filmwatcher59 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Lack of education.
2006-08-22 14:02:03 · answer #4 · answered by monkeyface 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because we like to be different.
2006-08-22 14:01:02 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that is the way they speak, its just their accent.
2006-08-22 17:24:20 · answer #6 · answered by ladybee5 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I thought it was more like 'plaahnt' and 'plaahstic'
2006-08-22 14:02:32 · answer #7 · answered by keefer 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's called the intrusive "r".
Don't let it get to you.
2006-08-22 14:01:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
because they are cockneys
2006-08-22 14:02:36 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They do say PLARSTIC don't they
FANTARSTIC
SARCARSTIC
and all that
2006-08-22 17:39:35 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋