why do you care about God's laws if you don't care about God?
2006-08-21 18:40:29
·
answer #1
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
Woman are property, where as men are people. That is why a man can sell his wife into slavery and what not.
And why does that sound like Jewish male rules and not the true G*d's rules. Who are you to create G*d based on the morals that you prefer to keep. The 10 commandments were written by His hand. I think that they stand the way they do for a reason, though I'd have to know the original translation to completely understand the issue.
2006-08-22 01:42:38
·
answer #2
·
answered by greatpanisdead 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Perhaps you should visit your local Christian church for Bible Study. If you really understood that commandment you would know God prohibits coveting anything by anyone.
Further reading and understanding of the Bible would teach you that women were not owned by or lesser than men but had different roles than men.
When you read the Bible it will be helpful to have an understanding of the culture and language at the time of the writings. Do you think the Jews in Moses' time would have understood thou shal not covet the DVD player or SUV?
2006-08-22 01:58:08
·
answer #3
·
answered by reallyconfuzzled1 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
the bible is a book of priciples not fast rules. the jewish society like most in existence today was extremely patriarchal. that the commandment was therefore directed to males and not females does not make God a sexist. biologists use the collective man to iclude women! what is good for the goose is good for the gander. if you recognised the spirit of the law you would not have the problem
2006-08-22 01:53:27
·
answer #4
·
answered by abella 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Cause of polygamy. Jews were originally polygamist too. till Rabbenu Gershom banned it in 11th Century
As such someone could marry more the one women so a second wife would be coveting another womens husband.
covet meaning .."To feel immoderate desire for that which is another's" wouldn't be immoderate if a man is allowed to have more then one wife
2006-08-22 01:54:03
·
answer #5
·
answered by Jamal 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
b/c a fat European man with a really small, flacid penis wrote the bible you are reading about 600 years ago.
Which means, women were kept on leashes and in head gear, essentially, a woman was a mans property. It may as well say, Never touch another mans french fries!
2006-08-22 01:41:50
·
answer #6
·
answered by Ivy 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
some things in the Bible refer DIRECTLY to Jewish culture....where women are seen and not heard....but still there are also unrevealed law....you could just think about it and say to yourself "would God like for a women to covet another women's husband, when he doesn't want a man to covet another man's wife?
2006-08-22 01:45:19
·
answer #7
·
answered by egyptsprincess07 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
There is no male or female in God's eyes the same commandment applies to both sexes. God is impartial
2006-08-22 05:02:58
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
this applies to both to remain faitful . but to the one who dont in gods eyes the one who has can divorce the unfaitful spouce and remarry in gods eyes this is the only think that breakes the marrage vow . and who marries the one who wasnt faitful also commits . [adultry]. [coveting]. or [covet]. as you put it . read . lev..27.chapter..14. .vs7. as well revelation.21.vs8. on this as well in proverbs. my opion ? >>ref<. bible?
2006-08-22 01:55:52
·
answer #9
·
answered by the_silverfoxx 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
You're right.
Up until around 1900 CE, women were believed to be devoid of sexual pleasure. Do the math.
2006-08-22 01:52:00
·
answer #10
·
answered by Doctor Mercado 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Because women didn't count as even second class humans in any bible.
Tammi Dee
2006-08-22 01:45:31
·
answer #11
·
answered by tammidee10 6
·
0⤊
0⤋