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Can we assume that god is OK with children being sexually abused? He seems to be inordinately concerned with mixed fibres and picking up sticks on the wrong day but never thinks to condemn one of the most abhorrent things that a human being can possibly do.

2006-08-21 02:26:40 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Many, many things are specifically and eplicitly condemned in the Bible, but so far as I can tell, adults having sex with children is not one of them.

2006-08-21 02:41:38 · update #1

12 answers

There were laws against RAPE, INCEST, Homosexuality and other type of crimes in the bible. One reason that I think you do not find "child molestation" per se, is that because this is a culture that was around two thousand years ago and the law itself was written long before that. Obviously they have some mores and traditions that are quite different than ours and I am sure one of those traditions was getting married at much younger ages (13 - 14 - 15) than we traditionally do in the modern times.

I also do not claim to be a biblical law expert. It could be in there under a word that is not familar to us.

2006-08-21 02:37:23 · answer #1 · answered by TK421 5 · 0 0

The Bible does have a prohibition against sex with near kin in Leviticus chapter 18. Most molestation occurs within the immediate family. Child molestation is an abomination according to God's word and also come under Proverbs 6:16-19 in the seven deadly sins. Any form of sexual immorality---fornication--is a sin and leads to damnation unless it is confessed and repented. The Bible is very thorough in covering every type of sin. There is nothing that man can come up with to get around sin. God is just too smart for us. Jesus loves you.

2006-08-21 09:45:13 · answer #2 · answered by Preacher 6 · 0 0

God is certainly NOT "OK with children being sexually abused".

We see in Deuteronomy 27:20-23, Moses laying down God's law for the Israelites:
20 Cursed be he that lieth with his father's wife; because he uncovereth his father's skirt. And all the people shall say, Amen. 21 Cursed be he that lieth with any manner of beast. And all the people shall say, Amen.
22 Cursed be he that lieth with his sister, the daughter of his father, or the daughter of his mother. And all the people shall say, Amen.
23 Cursed be he that lieth with his mother in law. And all the people shall say, Amen.
Note verse 22 - CURSED

Also: INCEST DEFINED AND FORBIDDEN
Leviticus 18:6-18; 20:11,12,17,19-21; Deuteronomy 22:30; 27:20-23; Ezekiel 22:11; 1 Chronicles 5:1

2006-08-21 09:42:41 · answer #3 · answered by azar_and_bath 4 · 0 0

The bible does say something about harming a child, though not specifically child molesters.
Probably because young to us now, was not considered a child then. I believe Mary was about 12-15 years old. Now, that would be statutory rape for her to be married.
The bible also says, suffer the little children to come to me.

The millstone part is correct. That is also in the bible.

2006-08-21 09:35:02 · answer #4 · answered by classyjazzcreations 5 · 0 0

It does say in the bible about hurting children. That they should wear a milstone around their necks and be tossed into the sea.

I'm for that. But, I would settle for them being thrown in general population in prison and that the other prisoners should know they are child molesters. Sure would solve the problems.

2006-08-21 09:33:20 · answer #5 · answered by Martin 3 · 0 0

Unfortunately, I don't have a copy of the Bible on me at present; but in the Book of Luke, Jesus specifically stipulates conduct pertaining to children that whosoever "offends" them, "it were better if a millstone were hung about his neck and he be drowned in the sea."

I'm afraid you're quite wrong about this one Icarus.

2006-08-21 09:35:03 · answer #6 · answered by Jack 7 · 0 0

Consider what Jesus said about those who would harm children: "It would be better for them if a millstone was hanged about their neck, and that they were drowned in the depth of the sea."

Perhaps it is not mentioned in OT Levitical law because there was no need to....there's no ambiguity about its being abhorrent.

2006-08-21 09:37:50 · answer #7 · answered by Seven 5 · 0 0

As RB says, it does. Plenty of scripture can be used to deal w/ this subject.

Maybe you should actually read the Bible, instead of making complaints that aren't true.

2006-08-21 09:33:03 · answer #8 · answered by Iridium190 5 · 1 0

Because there's no need for any book -- not even the Bible -- to state the obvious.

2006-08-21 09:35:15 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

here are some verses

"Cursed be he that lieth with his sister, the daughter of his father, or the daughter of this mother..."
Deuteronomy 27:22
"And if a man shall take his sister, his father's daughter, or his mother's daughter...it is a wicked thing...."
Leviticus 20:17

2006-08-21 09:37:09 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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