In Isaiah 7:14, the verse speaks of a virgin conceiving. Christians claim this is a prophecy, fulfilled when Jesus was born of the virgin Mary. The Hebrew word translated as virgin is 'alma'. According to the top Hebrew scholars and Hebrew Bible experts, the word, 'alma', means "young woman". If the word translated as virgin means a young woman, and not virgin, then how can the New Testament (and thus Christianity) claim that Jesus fulfilled prophecy by being born of a virgin. 'Bethulah' is Hebrew for virgin. If there was a prophecy for the messiah being born of a virgin, why wasn't the word 'bethulah' used in Isaiah 7:14?
2006-08-20
16:13:17
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20 answers
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asked by
Nowhere Man
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Vashsunglasses, what exactly do you mean the Hebrew scholars "have a vested reason for translating the word the way they do?"
2006-08-20
16:20:30 ·
update #1
Pamspraises, please don't advertise for Jews for Jesus on here. It's not Judaism you're practicing. It's Christianity, at it's most deceptive form. You convert Jews who aren't educated in the Scriptures, you ask them to call on Jesus at the lowest point in their life, you ask them to pray to Jesus for a miracle, and interpret the next thing that happens as a sign from Jesus. Moishe Rosen, the founder of Jews for Jesus, is an ordained Baptist minister. Anything that involves the New Testament is Christian. Jews for Jesus is an insult to Christianity and Judaism.
2006-08-20
16:23:16 ·
update #2
Ellen, my problem is that a young woman is different than a virgin. I understand that in Biblical times, a young woman would more than likely have been a virgin. But more than likely isn't all the time. The woman who conceived gave birth in Isaiah's time as well, so it therefore couldn't have been a prophecy regarding Jesus.
2006-08-20
16:45:06 ·
update #3
While I am not a Hebrew Scholar, I do know a bit about the work of translation. Many words can mean something standing alone and have an altered or different meaning when used alongside certain qualifiers. That is most likely the case here, if you are indeed right in what you say.
I read the link provided by Rosends, and I find it interesting that it tries to "cut short" the qualifier argument based on some principal of translation described by modern scholars. He also quotes 3 translations, the KJV which uses the word virgin and two other Hebraic contemporary translations which use the words young woman. My response to that is that just because a translation or a person's scholarship is recent, does not make it superior. The New World Translation is a 20th century work that is stretched to the limits of credulity in verses which they need it to be worded a certain way so as to agree with the Jehovah Witness' particular beliefs.
But, let's take your argument at face value. Let's say that Christ's virgin birth was not prophecied in Isaiah 7:14. Fine. You are not arguing the fact of his virgin birth, only the idea that it was prophecied. Thank you for confirming your belief in this miracle which certainly speaks to the Diety of Jesus Christ. I'm glad you felt comfortable setting all these non-believers aright.
2006-08-20 16:32:53
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answer #1
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answered by You'll Never Outfox the Fox 5
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I don't know anything about Hebrew so I can't comment of the niceties of translation. However, I really don't see what the problem is. If Hebrew scholars translate it "young woman" and Christian scholars translate it "virgin" where is the problem?
In the society of Jesus day and even in the days of Isaiah it would be presumed that if they were talking about a "young woman" then she would automatically be considered a virgin unless married.
The penalty for NOT being a virgin when you were unmarried would be so severe that the other option would not be considered.
If Isaiah was writing about a young woman then it would be presumed that she was virgin also. If she wasn't, what would be the big deal of her giving birth? Why even mention it as being a sign? There would be no particular miraculous sign in a young married woman giving birth, now would there be?
You people! Before you jump on some bandwagon trying to convince everyone that Jesus and the New Testament is a fraud will you please use some logic in your arguments? If you don't than they will fall apart.
2006-08-20 16:36:17
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answer #2
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answered by Ellen J 7
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The word in Hebrew is Almah, meaning a damsel, a maid, a virgin; I don't actually see "young woman" in the text, but since "young woman" is synonymous with a damsel or maid, I won't belabor that point.
But notice that another definition of the Hebrew word Almah is "Virgin." Now you can choose as the reader to read the following verse as a "young woman," but then what do you do with the word "sign"?
Isaiah 7:14 states: "Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel."
It is not such a sign that a "young woman" would be with child and give birth to a son, but it would be quite the feat for a virgin to do so; therefore, it would have been a great sign of the Lord for a virgin to conceive and bear a child, that happened to be a boy, whose name means "God with us," all prophesied 700 years before it happened.
As for the word "bethulah," this word is also translated as "virgin" in English; however, it does have a broader meaning that an unsexed girl. This is the definition according to Strong's Concordance:
Beth-oo-law, No. 1330 (Hebrew) to separate, a virgin (from her privacy); sometimes (by continuation) a bride, also (figuratively) a city or state -- maid, virgin.
In this instance, "almah" would be the correct word.
2006-08-20 16:40:11
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answer #3
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answered by Rebecca 7
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"Therefore YAH himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."
LET US USE TRUTH- - If you believe the virgin in this verse is speaking of a young woman, then explain why that is a sign. The verse says Yah shall give a SIGN. Signs are indicators, just as Yah said the curses of Deuteronomy 28 are for a sign upon Israel's descendants forever. Just as Yah gave Moses a sign so he could show the children of Israel who sent him. If the virgin giving birth in Isaiah 7:14 means a young woman, then the question must be asked: HOW IS THIS A SIGN?
Let's say the population of Israel was about 3 million people, which means at any given time a young women is giving birth. You can have up to 100+ young women giving birth a month. So how can you know which one has the special seed, how is a common act such as a young women giving birth a sign? All the signs Yah has given throughout scripture are distinct, you will know without doubt that this is a sign from Yah. The VIRGIN ISAIAH is speaking about is a woman who has never been touched sexually by a man. At the same time, she has conceived a child. WHO DID THIS HAPPEN TO? IN THE HISTORY OF ISRAEL WHAT ISRAELITE WOMAN GAVE BIRTH TO A CHILD WITHOUT HAVING INTERCOURSE. THIS IS THE SIGN YAH SAID HE WOULD GIVE, THIS SIGN WILL INDICATE THIS WOMAN HAS BORE THE CHILD SPOKEN OF IN PROPHECY. WHO IS THE VIRGIN?
2006-08-21 20:10:57
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answer #4
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answered by justme 5
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the theory that 'almah' basically skill a gentle lady and 'bethulah' basically skill virgin is in accordance with traditions that are adversarial to Jesus/Yeshua being the Messiah and attempt to describe away Isaiah 7:14. in accordance to Holy Scripture, the be conscious 'bethulah' does no longer unavoidably mean virgin and the be conscious 'almah' skill a gentle lady, and this youthful lady can be a virgin. Rebecca became noted as an 'almah'. And please do no longer mistaken Roman Catholicism as representative of Christianity. The adversary loves confusion and to make Jews hate non-Jews and non-Jews hate Jews. basically study the hot testomony/B'rit Hadashah for your self and be conscious if Jesus/Yeshua or Saul/Paul were a criminal offense. They were no longer. the hot testomony/B'rit Hadashah says we ought to save the regulation to be holy (no matter if shall we no longer achieve this completely), yet because we gained't save it completely, that is our faith in Messiah and his atonement that covers our sins the position we fall short. maximum Jews at present basically have 0.5 the reality basically as maximum Christians at present basically have 0.5 the reality. it isn't both the regulation of God or faith in Jesus/Yeshua as Messiah. they are not at the same time unique even with the undeniable fact that the adversary has deceived many into believing so. the authentic faith, the comprehensive reality is: Jesus/Yeshua is the prophesied Messiah and he did be conscious the regulation and taught the folk to do an same.
2016-11-26 20:41:27
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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It was a short term prophesy as well. If you read the details, it was to show a point to the king. This was most likely a young woman (alma), whereas the miracle birth of the gospels is quite obviously virgin (bethulah). This is a case shown often in the bible, and is well worth looking up further, where there is a small sign in the near future, and the full fulfilment happens further into the future...
2006-08-20 16:22:20
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Yeah, I've talked to Christians about this. They don't really care. If Matthew says a prophecy was fulfilled about Jesus, they're going to believe it--even though the prophecy in Isaiah 7 had absolutely nothing to do with Jesus.
"Yeah, but the Hebrew experts have a vested reason for translating that word the way they do."
LOL! No they don't, you dumb ******. What, do you think they were all sitting around saying, "OH MY GOD LETS CHANGE THE WORD FROM 'VIRGIN' TO 'YOUNG WOMAN' BECAUSE OTHERWISE CHRISTIANITY WILL BE PROVEN TRUE AND JUDAISM WILL NO LONGER EXIST!! OMG!!!"?
Imbecile.
2006-08-20 16:19:05
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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There is no concept of "virgin birth" in Judaism. Virgin Birth is a Greek religious concept.
The word in question, "alma", means "young woman" or "young maiden".
The purpose of this prophesy in Isaiah is about reassuring the king of Judah, King Ahaz, of God's protection against invasion by the northern kingdoms of Israel and Syria.
2006-08-21 19:32:31
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answer #8
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answered by mo mosh 6
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It is funny the Jews are the one of the only religions who do not believe in the Virgin birth. Even the Muslims believe this.
2006-08-20 17:58:11
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answer #9
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answered by stacyrad2001 2
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Tis is very clearly a prophesy intended for King Ahaz, so even if it meant virgin, it woudl still jsut be a prophesy for Ahaz. End of story. Don't you thikn that Isaiah would devote a little bit more than one sentence to something that would be the greatest prophecy of his life if it referred to jesus?
2006-08-23 10:57:30
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answer #10
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answered by abcdefghijk 4
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