King James Version KJV
1st Chronicles; Chapter 22; verses 9, 10 &11
9.Behold, a son shall be born to thee, who shall be a man of rest; and I will give him rest from all his enemies round about: for his name shall be Solomon, and I will give peace and quietness unto Israel in his days.
10.He shall build an house for my name; and he shall be my son, and I will be his father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel for ever.
11.Now, my son, the LORD be with thee; and prosper thou, and build the house of the LORD thy God, as he hath said of thee.
John The Babtist and Jesus said Jesus was the son of GOD. GOD said didn't say that. GOD said Solomon was the son of GOD. Who is right, John the Babtist?, Jesus? or GOD?
2006-08-20 03:33:40 · 16 answers · asked by chrisbrown_222 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Does the Christian god not call everyone his 'son?' Well, excepting women, I suppose, because of the patriarchal society which spawned Christianity...
It is common knowledge that men wrote the Bible; there are going to be inconsistencies due to differing experiences.
2006-08-20 03:42:03 · answer #1 · answered by Veronica 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Note the passage where El tells David: .. a son shall be born to THEE..." this is denoting that David will be the progenitor, the natural father, the biological father of Solomon. But in verse 10, El says to David "... and he shall be MY son..." -- That is understood by the Hebrew to mean God will place him under his special protection, or grace. It does not conflict with or supercede at all David being Solomon's father.
In the case of Jesus, we see in the Gospel of John chap 1:14 that Jesus is called the ONLY BEGOTTEN ("monogenous" in Greek). This denotes specifically that Jesus is the biological son of God. No other person in the Scriptures is related to God in this way.
So In Jesus we can see that there are two natures : human, via Mary and divine via God the Father. This is what is meant by the two terms used of Jesus in the New Testament "son of Man" and "Son of God". The first points out His humanity, the second points out His divinity.
2006-08-20 03:56:00 · answer #2 · answered by a_catholic_monk 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The name Solomon comes from the Hebrew Shelomo (peace) and refers to a man of peace . The man of peace is God's son.
This is a good example of Biblical typology, where persons and events in the Old Testament forshadow events in the New Testament. Thomas Aquinas wrote about this in the 13th century: I answer that, One thing may be contained in another in two ways. First, actually; as a located thing is in a place. Secondly, virtually; as an effect in its cause, or as the complement in that which is incomplete; thus a genus contains its species, and a seed contains the whole tree, virtually. It is in this way that the New Law is contained in the Old: for it has been stated (1) that the New Law is compared to the Old as perfect to imperfect. Hence Chrysostom, expounding Mk. 4:28, "The earth of itself bringeth forth fruit, first the blade, then the ear, afterwards the full corn in the ear," expresses himself as follows: "He brought forth first the blade, i.e. the Law of Nature; then the ear, i.e. the Law of Moses; lastly, the full corn, i.e. the Law of the Gospel." Hence then the New Law is in the Old as the corn in the ear.
Do a search for "type of Christ" and you will see the many instances where Jesus is foreshadowed in the Old Testament. To my mind this is further evidence that Scripture is divinely inspired. The truths contained in the Bible are so deep, with layer upon layer of meaning. If you are just looking at the literal, you are missing so much.
As for who said Jesus was the son of God, it was God himself:
It happened in those days that Jesus came from Nazareth of Galilee and was baptized in the Jordan by John.
On coming up out of the water he saw the heavens being torn open and the Spirit, like a dove, descending upon him.
And a voice came from the heavens, "You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased." (Mark 1: 9-11)
2006-08-20 04:12:44 · answer #3 · answered by anabasisx 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Jesus is the only BEGOTTEN son of God. When we find favor in the Lord's eyes (are born again), we are adopted into His family and become his sons and daughters. So, God has many sons and daughters.
Great question, by the way.
Grace and Peace to you.
2006-08-20 03:45:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Key word is begotten!
The angels are sons of God. and all man kind are the children of God, so Solomon was a Son of God. But Christ was begotten son of God, through Mary the virgin.
2006-08-20 09:05:12 · answer #5 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus is the son of God. Solomon was a king.
2006-08-20 03:46:53 · answer #6 · answered by Carol M 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
God had declared to David, before Solomon’s birth, that a son would be born to him and that his name would be Solomon, and that this one would build a house to His name. The name Jedidiah (meaning “Beloved of Jah”) seems to have been given as an indication to David that God had now blessed his marriage to Bath-sheba and that the fruitage thereby produced was approved by him. But this was not the name by which the child was commonly known. Undoubtedly the name Solomon (from a root meaning “peace”) applied in connection with the covenant that God made with David, in which he said that David, being a man who had shed much blood in warfare, would not build the house for God, as David had it in his heart to do. (1Ch 22:6-10) Not that David’s warfare was wrong, but God's typical kingdom was essentially of a peaceful nature and objective; its wars were to clean out wickedness and those opposing God's sovereignty, to extend Israel’s dominion to the boundaries that God had outlined, and to establish righteousness and peace. These objectives the wars of David accomplished for Israel. Solomon’s rule was essentially a reign of peace.
2006-08-20 03:43:55 · answer #7 · answered by Micah 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
All Israel was thought of as son of God as well as the hebrew kings David, Solomo.
Jesus was the descendant of David and also as king of the jews and messiah could claim this title as a mere man but since he also is divine and king of all the q is faulty.
2006-08-20 03:50:22 · answer #8 · answered by zorro 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
in this verse, John describes precisely what the "international" means -- (a million) the will of the flesh this will be fornication, idolatry, jealousy, and others stated at Galatians 5:19-21. (2) the will of the eyes issues your eyes desire like... extra wealth, new automobile, living house, etc. None of this stuff are "incorrect", yet even as they develop into the concentration of your existence, really than doing God's will, this is even as it turns into the "choose of the eyes" (3) the showy reveal of one's technique of existence it is exhibiting off what you've... Boasting about what you've executed, wanting prominence, etc. Later what John says, is that the international is passing away. all of us understand what the international means already, so those human beings operating in the direction of those 3 issues will "bypass away" for the duration of Armageddon. yet "he that does the will of God continues to be continually."
2016-11-30 21:09:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
God did say that Jesus was his son when he was baptised by John ... Remember the white dove? "This is my son, with whom I am pleased"?
Now for Solomon,God was referring to the woman who would give birth to him... He called him his son as he calls us his children
2006-08-20 03:45:22 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋