2006-08-19 17:08:05 · 5 answers · asked by tergra 1 in Food & Drink ➔ Cooking & Recipes
The cook. The homeowner did nothing for which ot be liable. Owning a residence in which crimes happen does not implicate the owner. This is why cooks who make commercial food should have licenses and insurance.
2006-08-19 17:14:02 · answer #1 · answered by Marvinator 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would assume that the person who owned the business that is conducting operations from the home is liable. The cook was hired for that company, so the company is liable.
2006-08-19 17:19:23 · answer #2 · answered by lizzieboredom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure what you mean, a person cooking at home and then selling that food as a business? If that's the case, in most if not all states its illegal to do that, I would guess both would be held accountable. If its for something like a bake sale or other things like that, I would again guess that both people could be held accountable
2006-08-19 17:14:13 · answer #3 · answered by 7 Words You Can't Say On T.V 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The person cooking.
2006-08-23 16:19:36 · answer #4 · answered by Teddy Bear 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'd suggest checking with your local Health Department as this may be different depending on where you live.
2006-08-19 17:13:43 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋