In the absence of any other information.
2006-08-19 10:23:58 · 11 answers · asked by Ejsenstejn 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
I'm looking for a baseline probability here.
2006-08-19 10:35:09 · update #1
baseline = a priori base rate probability. Before taking other factors into account. It is a simple statistical measure and it is out there. What is it?
2006-08-19 10:47:10 · update #2
Qualifying for variables would require a statistical workup. Baseline probability does not. Just divide the total number of people convicted in a given year by the total number of people charged in a given year and out comes the baseline probability.
2006-08-19 11:32:10 · update #3
Probability is very high. If there was enough evidence to charge, then there is enough evidence to convict. Charges without convictions equal illegal arrest which equals lawsuits. So there are not to many charges without probable cause or evidence, that they were at least acting in good faith.
2006-08-19 12:15:47 · answer #1 · answered by bsure32 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the USA very high!
The prosecutors absolutely want to 'win', and really don't care whether the person they are after is guilty or not. The only thing that counts is, whether they can make it stick.
They'll bully the accused to cow him (or her) into 'copping' a plea, with threats on how much worse it could be if they get convicted by a jury. They'll lie and cajole and even frame the defendant, NO problem (for them).
And often, any plea they accept is used by the judge to give more penalty than was agreed to.
If they were after me, I'd fight to the end, because these bastards don't care. You gotta have a good nervous system to withstand the psychological pressure they bring to bear.
2006-08-19 10:31:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Must agree, you are being too broad. Being convicted of a crime depends on so much, What crime? how much evidence? How much can be afforded for defence? The short of it is, if you can afford a great defence you probably wont be convicted. Innocent before guilty went out when money was invented
2006-08-19 10:36:28 · answer #3 · answered by wandering star 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That person conviction depends
only on the jury, the witness and the persecutions testimony.Remember the Miranda warning. "You have to right to be silent, anything you say now can and will be used against in the court of Law. If you can't afford an attorney one will be appointed unto you."
2006-08-19 12:55:09 · answer #4 · answered by problemsolver86 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on the crowns case against the person, if a strong case you will be convicted...It also depends on how good your lawyer is... there are many factors involved...mistermetor first time offense, the case may be dropped...For any crime get the best lawyer you can afford, even if you must morgage your home...
2006-08-19 10:37:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends on many factors. If the state feels that they do not have a strong case, they will drop the case like a hot potato.
You would need to be a little more specific.
2006-08-19 10:29:40 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Innocent to proven quilty
50/50
2006-08-19 10:29:16 · answer #7 · answered by Nate K 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
the law says innocent until proven guilty. it sounds real good on paper. actually it,s acording to who you are, how mutch money you gave. how mutch you know on someone and how pissed off at you the establishment is at you. if you ain,t a important somebody your a-- is gone!
2006-08-19 10:34:39 · answer #8 · answered by houdini 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Well, if they are black there is a 99.9% chance they are going to jail. If they are white, they will probably just get community service.
2006-08-19 10:29:33 · answer #9 · answered by Good Gushy 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
it varies inversely with how black you are...the blacker you are the more likely you will get convicted
2006-08-19 11:05:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋