It wasn't until the 16th or 17th Century (specifically in England) that the term "sodomite" ceased referring to the ancient residents of Sodom and Gomorrah and began to more and more refer to homosexual men, lesbians too were called sodomites and, technically, everyone -- whether heterosexual or homosexual who engaged in oral sex or anal sex were also sodomites. earlier masturbators were also included as sodomites originally but they were later given their own name onanist's..well it doesn't leave many people out does it...you've probably all been guilty of the sins of sodom at one stage or another in one way or another.
2006-08-19
05:30:55
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26 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Unless you've stuck rigidly to the Missionary position all your life of course.
2006-08-19
05:36:35 ·
update #1
Reply to Kara M:
It's not a good idea to go about calling people sodomites when you may be one yourself is what I am pointing out...K!
2006-08-19
05:38:58 ·
update #2
Reply to Devin C:
it does matter a great deal that we know how words and things come to be used a named what they are, we can see the historical progression of religious hypocrisy at work that way... how humiliating violent rape was twisted by Bible interpretors and lexicographers to appear that it referred to homosexuality, it does not.
2006-08-19
05:58:08 ·
update #3
Reply to purplewings123;
Gee , I guess I am trying to save hyopocrites from roasting in the lake of fire maybe (LOL)
2006-08-19
07:34:43 ·
update #4
I think this question is a pain in the a**!
2006-08-19 05:37:48
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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2006-08-19 05:36:26
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answer #2
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answered by 3eleven 4
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I guess every little detail has to be broken down into a specific classification now huh?
I think hetrosexual & homosexual stand in different classifications
since one is based on same gender, leaving less choices in sexual positions - resulting in more sodomy and oral.
Hetrosexuals may at times engage in sodomy with their partner, but it is not a constant part of their sex life.....and it is also with an opposite gender, leaving more options.
To me, that's enough of an explanation and sodomite is an old fashioned word that isn't used anymore. I think the words we use to describe these different sexual inbibers are just fine.
Are you trying to overthink your way into something ....?
2006-08-19 06:52:27
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answer #3
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answered by purplewings123 5
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Funny, I thought Sodomites was referring strictly to anal sex practices. Where is your source of information?
PS I believe the law system has now taken over the definition of Sodomites/sodomy since the terms are more than likely used pertaining to various cases.
2006-08-19 05:36:24
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answer #4
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answered by whozethere 5
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Well duhh. But the people from Sodom and Gomorrah were all fags anyway. It clearly says in the bible that ALL the MEN from the city surrounded the house:
Genesis 19:4: Before they had gone to bed, all the men from every part of the city of Sodom—both young and old—surrounded the house.
Genesis 19:5: They called to Lot, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
2006-08-19 05:36:52
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answer #5
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answered by Dave 2
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the way u show things make that matter look so but u know that words change, acquire new meanings and so on... perhaps in the past people like most of us may have been called that way... BUT nowadays sodomites refer to a specific group of people... so I don't think most of us may be called sodomites.
Good point anyway
2006-08-20 01:16:12
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answer #6
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answered by Dinorider 2
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The reason that it was changed to mean anal sex was not for the reason of sexual orientation. In ancient times men used to rape other men AND women anally to demoralize them and make them feel inferior. Just like at abu grabe when troops demoralized the prisoners. It's just like that. Sodomy has nothing to do with being gay. Most of the men who committed this in Sodom were in fact married hederosexuals. The rules were changed by the church in rennaisance period to try to control kings who had committed such acts to blackmail the king into giving them more money.
The reason we have so many amazing churches in europe? Blackmail done by bishops. Believe it or not, it's in the history books.
2006-08-19 05:40:58
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answer #7
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answered by computerqfl 3
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a million. Taxpayers, purchasers, and agencies might could subsidize gay relationships. 2. Public faculties might initiate coaching gay relationships are same to heterosexual ones. 3. Freedom of expertise of right and incorrect and non secular liberty may be threatened. 4. Fewer human beings will marry. (hence removing marriage altogether) 5. Fewer human beings would be monogamous and sexually committed (elevating expenditures of STDs) 6. Fewer human beings would be married for a life-time. 7. Fewer little ones would be raised via a mothers and fathers. ( a remarkable of the youngster that all and sundry very honestly ignores) 8. greater little ones might advance up fatherless (elevating expenditures of crime) 9. beginning expenditures might fall 10. demands for polygamous relationships and different varieties of relationships (minors, animals, etc) might strengthen.
2016-09-29 10:53:44
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answer #8
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answered by milak 4
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It really doesn't matter. The meaning of the word evolved over time in reference to homosexuals. Anyone who uses that word nowadays knows it means a person who favors the same gender in sexual relations. Just as the word "gay" used to mean happy hearts, it also evolved to mean something else.
2006-08-19 05:47:54
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answer #9
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answered by Delta Charlie 4
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Yes. But what is your question, seems like you've already answered it.
Under the old laws of most European countries and some American states, sodomy refers to ANY anal copulation.
2006-08-19 05:54:05
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answer #10
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answered by robert2020 6
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Are you technically right? Probably. Does is matter now? Probably not. I think what matters to most churches is if the couple is a, heterosexual and b, married.
2006-08-19 05:39:17
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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