Laws of Rape
"If a man is caught in the act of raping a young woman who is not engaged, he must pay fifty pieces of silver to her father. Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he will never be allowed to divorce her." Deuteronomy 22:28-29
2006-08-18 16:44:16 · 27 answers · asked by thom_j32 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
that is why i hate religion and stuff like that...
2006-08-18 16:57:54 · answer #1 · answered by Zlek 2 · 1⤊ 6⤋
Any time a Bible verse is taken out of context, it gets messed up. Do some research on the original language of the old testament and use the surrouding verses. The original text more closely resembles 'lie with her' than 'rape her'.
The preceding verses (22:25-27) refer to a woman who is actually being made to have sex against her will, we're able to tell this from the way she's described as screaming, and it says he's forcing her: "25But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die. 26But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter: 27For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her. " KJV
28-29: "28If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; 29Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days. " Verses 28 & 29 aren't describing a woman being raped, but a willing woman sleeping with a man she isn't betrothed to and getting caught.
Now, it doesn't sound so bad, does it? When you research first, you can learn that, no, the woman being raped isn't supposed to marry her rapist, he's supposed to be punished. The woman fornicating and the man she does it with are supposed to have to get married, and he'd have to pay her dowry to her father. He'd have to promise to take care of her forever.
As for those dissing the Bible, I say, research before you judge and insult. And then consider just who you're insulting...
2006-08-19 00:11:58 · answer #2 · answered by littleangelfire81 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
you would have to understand the culture in Biblical times to understand the law that was passed.
if a woman was not a virgin, finding a husband was nearly impossible! she would then have 2 choices,
1. become a prostitute
2. never marry, finally starving to death because women didn't work for wages.
this was Moses way of stopping the rape before it happened. by telling the man that he must marry her, or pay her father the money for defiling his daughter.
Jewish men didn't want seconds, and if she married and was found not to be a virgin, she could be stoned for being an adulterer.
this is not God's law, it was the law of Moses.
I know this is not the answer you were hoping for, since you are not in the least interested in learning anything. but this is the truth. you are only here to ridicule what you don't understand.
why do I waste my time answering? because someone who might really want to know the answer might read the truth before you twist it.
2006-08-19 00:04:54 · answer #3 · answered by ♥Poetic1♥ 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
That quote probably refers to a law that is thousands of years old....
In those days it was probably meant to be justice for the woman who was raped. In those days, women were dependant on men and having husbands. If she was already raped, she would not be able to get a good match... SO this was some kind of weird justice.
It DOES not apply today and has nothing to do with religion even if it is found in the bible.
2006-08-18 23:59:28 · answer #4 · answered by ♥☆ Star ☆♥ 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
This is Old Testament Law, which seems very strange in light of today's society, but at that time, a raped woman would have never been able to marry, and she would have had no future--no way to survive. Having her rapist marry her was a way to have her be provided for. The rapist would then have had to follow the laws of husbands in caring for his wife for the rest of his life.
2006-08-18 23:50:52 · answer #5 · answered by happygirl 6 · 5⤊ 1⤋
That is so wrong to say, in high school I was raped by one of my teachers and he was a male, I was only in the 8 grade. Today, I still think about that and hate myself, somtimes thinking about taking my own life, I'll never get over it. And do you want to know the bad thing about it? I told people, and no one beleived me, I will never tell anybody else something like that again. People made fun of me and called me a freak. That is nightmare that will be with me forever. Sometimes I just get by myself and try to drink myself to death.
2006-08-18 23:56:05 · answer #6 · answered by ? 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Come- join us in the 21st century.
Put away your Talumdic, misogynist book and realize those 'laws' were written in a time when women were naught but property.
Fortunately, most people have evolved from that place.
2006-08-18 23:53:42 · answer #7 · answered by Diana R 2 · 4⤊ 1⤋
right. no one else would want her.
In Islam you kill the woman if it was in town so pay no attention to that post.
Oh the old testament defense. It's OK to be a homo now. Jesus "filled" that one too.
2006-08-18 23:51:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
If it had to b this way every unmarried man would go n rape a girl if no girl likes him.
2006-08-19 02:14:59 · answer #9 · answered by Angel 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
If you hadn't figured out by now, the Bible was written two thousand or so years ago. Haven't you realized that it doesn't relate to present day at all?
2006-08-19 00:05:14 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
I'm glad I live now instead of in the old testament times.
2006-08-18 23:52:53 · answer #11 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋