I've changed my plans and am now travelling to Greece instead.
2006-08-18 07:39:18 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Travel ➔ Travel (General) ➔ Other - Destinations
No, you don't. Think about all people flying to one Schengen country, but via coonecting flight in another (people flying to France through Germany and vice versa). Informally, with a multi-country tour a tourist gets a visa from the consulate of a country where she/he is planning to spend most of time (I read it on a French consulate's site).
One caveat - when you try to get a Schengen visa next time, they might ask you, why you entered the Schengen zone through Greece. You'll need your answer ready (they might even ask this question on the Greek border this time, although I doubt it).
2006-08-18 14:05:16 · answer #1 · answered by hec 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No you do not have to, you can travel to any country in schengen territory as the first place of destination. Be sure that you do not cross countries that are not schengen member such as all the countries above Greece with trains, or cars, to reach France for instance. Because then they will ask you the visa throughout the borders of those countries. There are no explicit rules mentioning this in schengen websites, but there is also no explicit rules forbid you to enter any other country first, because logically you will try to have cheapest flight fare which may need you to enter Greece, Italia, Sweden or any other country first.
I hope you enjoy the trip.
2006-08-18 11:17:15 · answer #2 · answered by coza b 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, the problem arises if you have a Schengen visa issued by Greece - then you can't go to France instead - it's all to do with borders. Make sure you can get back into the UK!
2006-08-18 20:07:56 · answer #3 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No ! Doesn't matter . If you get visa you are not necessary to go .
2006-08-18 07:46:03 · answer #4 · answered by Viviana DanielaD 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋