Why did Matthew go to all of the trouble to show Jesus' lineage back to David through Joseph's blood...

Question

given that if he was born of immaculate conception, it doesn't matter anyways? Joseph therefore was Jesus' stepfather at best, and none of the blood of David would have flown through his veins, right?

Answer 1

yes and no, that's not why.

Among all the entries in the genealogy, the unusual way in which the final entry (Joseph to Jesus) is phrased underscores the fact that Jesus was not Joseph's literal offspring.

The genealogy nevertheless establishes His claim to the throne of David as Joseph's legal heir.

Answer 2

The primary purpose of the Gospel of Matthew is to prove to Jews that Jesus is the promised Messiah. Several key requirements (among many) of the Messiah are that He MUST be born of a virgin through the Holy Spirit; and He MUST be of the bloodline of Abraham and David. These requirements mean He cannot have a human father.

Matthew records Joseph's blood line as proof Jesus cannot be his physical decendent. The controversial figure in Matthew's genealogy is Jeconiah: Jeremiah 22:30 documents God's promise that no physical seed of the evil King Jeconiah will ever sit upon David's throne. Since Jesus will sit on that throne after His return to earth, Jews are given a very important clue by reading His bloodline.

On the other hand, the Gospel of Luke records Mary's bloodline. Don't be mislead because Joseph is listed in her bloodline; read this article for a deeper understanding of this very important issue: http://www.jewsforjesus.org/publications/issues/5_6/genealogy

Answer 3

Because under adoption laws (and when Joseph married Mary he adopted Jesus) it is legally the same as if they shared blood. If you look at the line of Joseph, you will see that it includes all the kings of Judea. Had the romans had not conquered the country, Joseph's legal heir (Jesus) would have been the King of the Jews. Matthew takes the time to list this because according to the Old Testament, the promised Messiah was going to be heir to the throne of Israel. Matthew was showing how Jesus fulfilled this requirement and prophecy.

His bloodline is given in Luke chapter three, where it traces through Mary back. Luke included this genealogy because it was required that the Messiah be able to trace his bloodline back to David, Abraham, and Adam. Since his blood did not come from Joseph, it had to be shown that it came from Mary's line.

Answer 4

Very simple. Matthew wrote that BEFORE King Constantine convinced the church it would be best to claim Christ Jesus was actually a god. Originally the church had it right, Jesus was a Christ, a prophet, teacher and healer. At his temple in Turkey, The sun worshiping Constantine told the church they would never succeed with a mere pro[het, they needed a god, hence, the immaculate conception and the whole bit. Also they neede to leave the linage in to show that Jesus fulfilled the earlier prophesy that a son of David would be born, etc. etc. To see more of this read 2nd Chronicles, Chapter 22, verses 9-10 & 11

Vaya con DIOS

Answer 5

Under the law, Joseph was Jesus' father, even if Jesus was conceived by another. That was the point of the betrothal and subsequent marriage. This was important later as the controversy erupted between the followers of John (the Baptist) and Jesus. As cousins, they both could claim the Davidic birthright.
Our version (from the NT) shows the Jesus lineage. Those that were John's disciples would show the lineage of John.
The followers of the Magdalene history would add that the Mary called Magdala was the key between between the two. The
Mary (Magdala) was also of royal birth and confirmed the Jesus claim by her marriage to Him.

Answer 6

First the Royal Line flows thru the male in the family, to be truly a king he need a male line. SO Matthew show that Joseph was in the Line of David thru Solomon. Luke show it thru Her line with was the blood line of David. This was shown that JESUS had the right and blood to be King.

Answer 7

Yes, but to the rest of the Jewish world, Jesus was Joseph's son and therefore Joseph's lineage was important to Matthew's audience: Jews.
What I find interesting is that Mark included no geneology (the Romans he wrote to didn't care); Luke has Mary's (the Greeks cared about His humanity); and John only included His divine lineage, perfection with the Father from the beginning (John wrote to the church).

Answer 8

To show that Jesus was from the line of David.

This fulfills the prophecy..

Psalm 132:11 (NKJV)
The Lord has sworn in truth to David;
He will not turn from it:
"I will set upon your throne the fruit of your body.

Jeremiah 23:5 (NKJV)
"Behold, the days are coming," says the Lord,
"That I will raise to David a Branch of righteousness;
A King shall reign and prosper,
And execute judgment and righteousness in the earth.


Fulfilled:
Acts 13:23 (NKJV)
From this man's seed, according to the promise, God raised up for Israel a Savior--Jesus--

Romans 1:3 (NKJV)
concerning His Son Jesus Christ our Lord, who was born of the seed of David according to the flesh,

Matthew 1:22-23 (NKJV)
So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying: [23] "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and bear a Son, and they shall call His name Immanuel," which is translated, "God with us."

Answer 9

The key word in later scripture is the throne of David and Jesus fulfills all requirements to sit on the throne. I wish I could give you a more definitive answer on this but maybe later.

Oh, I think the other people above me did.

Red-dog-duke below has the best answer.

Answer 10

To show that the prophecies had been fulfilled and that Jesus came from the Royal House of David.