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Or was it just Leviticus and Paul? I remember Christ saying something about sexual immorality, but that is not homosexuality. That is pedophillia, adultery, necrophellia, bestiality... etc.
If you say yes, I would like a chapter and verse.

2006-08-17 08:00:23 · 27 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

27 answers

He didn't but Leviticus and Paul did.


And Point out to Matt that those words aren't written in red.

2006-08-17 08:06:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Yes, he spoke directly about it. Most people just don't recognize it.
But if we were to suppose that he did not, then some people feel IF he did not, there is nothing wrong with the practice. If we followed this line of reasoning, it would lead us to the following conclusion: neither did Jesus speak directly on the subject of sexually abusing children. So this is acceptable behavior. Does anybody reasonably feel that way?

But in fact, Christ did speak on homosexuality. it is found in the same place where you found the subjects of sexual immorality and adultery. The Greek word is porneia. It is an umbrella term that covers all immoral sexual behavior, including, but not limited to, necrophelia, bestiality and adultery. So any verse which uses the term fornication, such as Mark 7:21-23, Jude 7, Matthew 5:31, covers the practice of homosexuality because the Greek term translated fornication is porneia. And Jude shows that this term applies to homosexual conduct. At Jude 7, the Bible writer describes the behavior for which those in Sodom and Gomorrah were destroyed. Most Bibles translate this as "fornication" or sexual immorality. The Greek word is porneia. The same word used by Christ.

2006-08-17 08:18:39 · answer #2 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 1 0

In Christianity the Godhead consists of the Father, The Son, and the Holy Spirit. All three are distinct personalities of God. Please read John, chapter 10, verse 38 and John, Chapter 14, verse 19 for further enlightnment on this. When Jesus spoke, it was God speaking... there is no conflict between what Jesus spoke and what God instructed.
Homosexuality is indeed immoral. In Leviticus(which, by the way, is not the name of a person, but a word that means "relating to the Levites") Chapter 18, verse 22 God instructed Moses to tell the Israelites "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable".
I hope this helps you to sort it all out. thanks for the opportunity to offer an answer.

2006-08-17 08:24:33 · answer #3 · answered by Odell 2 · 0 0

To my knowledge, Jesus did not speak directly about homosexuality, pedophilia, bestiality, or necrophilia. He did speak about adultery a couple of times.

I have a theory about why homosexuality is condemned in the OT and in the epistles and Revelation, but not in the Gospels. I think First-Century Israel and its residents already disapproved of homosexuality and generally didn't practice it, so Jesus didn't have to speak of it. The Law of Moses introduces the law against homosexuality at a time when Israel had just exited one pagan land (Egypt) and was planning to enter another (Canaan).

Think: Jesus would certainly disapprove of child sacrifice, which is condemned in the OT, but he doesn't talk about it. It think this is because his fellow Israelites weren't practicing it nor were tempted to practice it.

Homosexualty, though not accepted among the first-century Israelites, but was accepted among the Greeks, and probably among the Romans and other peoples, so the new Christians traveling to other lands would feel a need to speak against it. The first mention of homosexuality is in the book of Romans, right?

All that said, Christians would be wrong to condemn homosexuality above other sins which Jesus did speak against, such as ignoring the needy or exploiting people. Notice Jesus' rescuing attitude toward the woman caught in adultery--he'd certainly treat a homosexual the same way! Also, some theorize that the centurion had a gay relationship with his sick servant. Jesus lauded the centurion's faith above the faith of his fellow Israelites, and healed the servant.

2006-08-17 08:17:54 · answer #4 · answered by MNL_1221 6 · 1 0

In Matthew 19:3-9, Jesus said: "Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,' and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'? So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate. "Why then," they asked, "did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?" Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery."
In Genesis 19, God destroys Sodom and Gomorrah for their sins among which was homosexuality as is defined by the throng who came to Lot's house.
Genesis 19:4-5 reads "4 Before they had gone to bed, all the MEN (emphasis) from every part of the city of Sodom—both young and old—surrounded the house. 5 They called to Lot, "Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us so that we can have sex with them."
The Bible is clear that homosexuality is a sin. Just like any other sin, Jesus still loves you as a creation of God. He does, however, hate the sin that you commit. Too many Christians condemn homosexuals themselves instead of condemning the act. Homosexuality is a sexual preference. The only difference between a heterosexual man and a homosexual man is who they have sex with. Therefore, pedophilia, necrophilia, beastiality, etc. all fall in the same catergory as sexual preference. This is the folly of the homosexual movement. The desire to be treated the same while being treated differently. It makes no sense. Who or what you do behind a bedroom door is no one's business but yours until you make it someone's business by asking for special treatment. God and Jesus and the Holy Spirit are all the same deity. Genesis 1:26 reads "Then God said, "Let US (emphasis) make man in OUR (emphasis) image, in OUR (emphasis) likeness, and let them rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air, over the livestock, over all the earth, and over all the creatures that move along the ground." Why would God say "Let US..."? The answer lies in the trinity of God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit. Therefore, since God condemned homosexuality, Jesus, who never contradicted God, did the same.

2006-08-17 08:40:53 · answer #5 · answered by PrasHimNow 1 · 0 0

Yes: At Revelation 21:8 and 22:15 (and in the Gospels), Jesus states that the "sexually immoral" (NKJV) or "whoremongers" (KJV) will "have their part in the lake which burns with fire and brimstone, which is the second death."

The Greek word translated as "sexually immoral" or "whoremongers" is "pornos." Pornos means:

1) a man who prostitutes his body to another's lust for hire;

2) a male prostitute;

3) a man who indulges in unlawful sexual intercourse; a fornicator.

It is from this word that the word "pornography" is derived. Since God meant marriage to be between a man and a woman, any sex outside marriage is "pornos" or "pornia," or fornication. This certainly encompases homosexual activity. The Levitical Laws certainly tell us God is averse to homosexual sex, as do the Pauline scriptures. With regard to Paul's writings, it's vital to remember Jesus Himself labeled Paul as His "chosen vessel" to communicate such information to believers. The Apostle Peter writes elsewhere that he's read all of Paul's Epistles and agrees. Therefore, it's unfounded to claim that Paul made these prohibitions up.

But I think it's important for us to remember that Jesus is only speaking about folks who are unrepentant; i.e. those not Born Again. Those who are Born Again are cleansed by His blood; if a Born Again believer repeatedly sins, this does not cause him or her to lose their salvation. However, they do face Jesus' judgement.

2006-08-17 08:19:26 · answer #6 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0 1

Homosexuality is sexual immorality if you are having intercourse. Marriage is man and woman. Sex outside of that is fornication. Fornication is sexual immorality. Jesus IS the Word of God.(John 1:1)
Also, remember Paul was taught by Jesus Christ (if you will). He was an apostle of Jesus Christ born out of season. Apostles were "hand picked" and taught by Jesus. Gal1:1, 1Tim 1:1.
His teachings were from Jesus.
By the way, is not just fornication, it' san abomination!

2006-08-17 08:13:37 · answer #7 · answered by syairasmom 2 · 1 0

Those of The True Christian Faith believe that Pauls ministry was led by Jesus. It was Jesus, in Spirit form, that appointed Paul as an Apostle. But Jesus did not speak to homosexuality directly in His earthly ministry.

Homosexual act are still sexual acts...and those are clearly addressed in the teachings of Christ. And clearly through the inspired teaching of paul.

2006-08-17 08:10:30 · answer #8 · answered by IdahoMike 5 · 1 0

He never spoke directly about it. But he did urge his followers to obey the law of Moses, which in fact does prohibit Homosexuality as "an abomination onto the Lord."

So, If you want to be a follower, abstain from abomination. If you want to be a Christian, ask for forgiveness of your sins, believe that Christ has the authority to forgive your sin, repent of your sin, and go and sin no more.

2006-08-17 08:09:21 · answer #9 · answered by coolbreeze44105 2 · 0 0

no longer purely did he no longer communicate approximately it, he on no account puzzled all people. as an occasion, there's a tale with a Roman centurion. all of us comprehend that Roman infantrymen, purely like the Greeks, "bonded" interior of their ranks with one yet another. yet, whilst this soldier got here to ask that his servant/son (reckoning on the interpretation) be healed and stated all Jesus desires to declare it purely a word (that he does not desire Jesus to be sure his slave), Jesus praised him on his faith. He did no longer ask the Roman soldier if he practiced gay intercourse before praising his faith. It did no longer remember to Jesus. "relatively I show you how to comprehend, I even have not chanced on all people in Israel with such super faith. I say to you that many will come from the east and the west, and could take their locations on the dinner social gathering with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in the dominion of heaven. however the matters of the dominion would be thrown outdoors, into the darkness, the place there will be weeping and gnashing of the teeth. bypass! enable or no longer it relatively is accomplished purely as you believed it would." As advised with the aid of the two Matthew and Luke.

2016-10-02 05:09:50 · answer #10 · answered by chauarria 3 · 0 0

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