Of course that was a contributing factor. The Treaty of Versailles caused the Germans to admit that they caused the war and were responsible for all damage as...therefor the French, in particular, made Germany pay for their war costs and damages...You see the French were all about revenge because of the humiliating defeat they suffered in the Franco-Prussian war (Prussia was the previous name for Germany). Germany took two choices pieces of France (Alsace and Lorraine) and occupied Paris until the French paid harsh reparations to Germany. So After WWI, France took back Alsace and Lorraine and forced Germany to pay the harsh reparations. Also, the treaty basically demanded that Germany to not have an offensive sized army and virtually no navy.
SO: Put yourself in Germany's shoes for a moment. Your economy is totally trashed, you money is worthless, your government was basically dictated to and is ineffectual, and you are totally blamed for WWI, a laughing stock.
THEN: Arises various groups in the power vacuum that is Germany during the 1920s. The one that is feared the most is Communists because of events in Russia (USSR). One of the groups that arises is one spouting national pride, a return to greatness, how we got shafted by the Treaty of Versailles, unity, patriotism, let's get those enemies within our society (Jews and other so called undesirables). They detain a few of their leaders, including Hitler. He rights his book, gets out of detention, and Nazis begin to act more like nationalistic politicians. There message is hopeful and positive to a defeated people in a trashed and broke nation. Slowly, working within the system mostly, the Nazis gain legitimacy, get elected, a a foot hold..and get enough clout and seats in government to get Hitler appoints to high office, all very politically well done...the rest we know about as his message reverberates deep within the patriotic German hearts and minds, especially because the League of Nations does nothing to really slow down or stop Hitler and the Nazis.
Does that help?
2006-08-16 17:49:05
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answer #1
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answered by Iamstitch2U 6
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I believe that the failure of the League of Nations to resolve World War I in a fair and progressive way did indeed lead to the rise of the Nazi's and eventually World War II. The U.S. President Woodrow Wilson had an good plan to settle the conflict fairly but leaders from England, France and Italy saw to it that Germany would pay. Germany should have had a fair say in the overall outcome. I do not think that WWI and the Treaty of Versailles had anything to do with the rise of Fascism...
2006-08-16 17:58:14
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answer #2
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answered by Todd Maz 4
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Of course it did. If Germany had won, or even if it had been spared its torment in the treaty process, there would be no need for fascism, or even communism for that matter. The Second Reich had set up a good "middle road" system that held a social contract to its citizens and at the same time, guarunteed their freedoms. The giving of Danzig to Poland, captured Ukraine to the Soviet Union and the penalties inflicted on Germany's economy led to the rise of the Nazis. Without these, there would have been no reason for WWII. As for Other fascist outside of Germany, I doubt that Fascism would have been stopped in Japan as it was the product of Japan's rapid industrialization. A German victory would only have slowed it (as Japan was rewarded with military funding for joining the Allies in WWI). Italy would have also been prone to facism, but I doubt Mussolini would have taken power.
2006-08-16 17:39:21
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answer #3
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answered by Michael M 3
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Germany cannot be the only responsable for the WWI. Europe was separated in groups of allies. And Germany thought that was unfair to point the finger at them.
It created a lot of anger. (reason 1)
Second reason is the economical unstability after the depression.
Hitler is the only who created job for everybody. So people chose him and let him take the lead and live in less freedom but at least with a job.
Thats how the rise of nazi started basically.
It too long to explain all the story.
2006-08-23 14:50:06
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answer #4
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answered by Spook 2
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Yes, I do think it did. The terms in the Treaty of Versailles was way more restrictive than it had to be. It forced Germany to pay extreme amounts in reparation. It limited Germany's military force to a non-viable level. The Germans are proud and have a counscious of social classes. The treaty was seen as being deliberate humiliation
The anger and shame made germany ripe for someone like Hitler to take control.
2006-08-16 22:04:52
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Definately. The harsh terms of the treaty led to the Germans being unable to make payments to France and England. This meant those two countries could not pay us back which led to the economic upheval of the 1920's in the world, not the US. It got so bad we loaned money to Germany to pay France and England so they could pay us. See why things led to our depression. Plus the harsh feelings in Germany left the people feeling stripped of any dignaty which led them to look for a savior. Anyone that feels thay have nothing left will follow anyone who promises to give them back their dignity. Thus Hitler uses this to rise to power, promising to give Germany what was lost in World War I. It should also be noted that Germany was not alone. Musilini in Italy and Tojo in Japan rose to power on the same premises. Getting diginity back of stuff that was lost from the treaty of Versailles.
2006-08-21 04:42:16
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answer #6
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answered by dewey2412 2
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Yes and if memory serves I believe the Germans were forced to sign the treaty in a train car. From what I understand, the train car where the Germans were forced to sign was a iconic item that infuriated Hitler and is where he made most countries of Europe sign their surrender. Side note: war accomplishes nothing long term. While you might be able to quote sources that dictate otherwise, in the long term there is nothing but envy, hate and animosity.
2006-08-17 03:37:59
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answer #7
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answered by equipmentandstuff 2
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Yeah man....this is well-established already through historical circles. The fact that we break down the conflict into two seperate wars causes the confusion.
WW1 and WW2 were really one long conflict. The fact that the German Army was NOT defeated in WW1, just simply quit and returned home, went a long way to setting up the conflict's continuation.
That is the answer is a short, simple statement.
2006-08-23 11:53:57
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answer #8
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answered by MotorCityMadman 3
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The debauchery of the Wiermar Republic,dunkalink6000? How often do you wash your brown shirt? As to the question, yes. The treaty was meant to break the spirit of the Germans and to get financial revenge on the german state. Gen. John "Black Jack" Pershing, who really wasn't the sharpest knife in the drawer recognised this and said that all the treaty did was ensure another war in twenty years. He was almost dead on.
2006-08-16 18:26:03
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answer #9
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answered by ? 5
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Absolutely without question. Without Versaille to sow the seeds of discord Nazism would never have gotten the foot hold it did. If there had been more fairness World War II was totally avoidable.
2006-08-17 15:35:02
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answer #10
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answered by Kevin P 3
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