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My husband was in the hospital- he's 27- and a few days following, he was diagnosed with an upper extremity dvt. he did receive iv therapy (Kcl + antibiotics). the nurse had dislodged his iv cath, allowed it to infiltrate, and now he has this condition. He has no underlying hypercoagulatory conditions, and has no other predisposing factors.

2006-08-16 14:06:02 · 2 answers · asked by dynamite2006 2 in Health Diseases & Conditions Other - Diseases

2 answers

So, when was he tested for all of the hypercoaguability disorders? He needs to be tested now and tested for Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome and all of the genetic and other clotting disorders out there, like Lp(a).

Infections increase clotting, IV damage to the vein can cause a DVT.

I have Lupus & APS. Until my 2nd clot, I had been told there was nothing wrong...no clotting problems - these were flukes and a "undefined hypercoaguability state". Turned out that I had the APS, Lp(a) and MTHFR. I went back and looked my medical records to find that the negative tests results were "cancelled" meaning they were never tested.

2006-08-17 03:57:36 · answer #1 · answered by hello 4 · 0 0

Yes, it can. IV therapy can cause phlebitis, which is inflammation of the vein, and the more irritated the vein is, the more platelets adhere to the wall of the vein, and form clots. Once the clots move upward, they can form a pulmonary embolus. Has your husband received anticoagulant therapy??

2006-08-16 14:13:33 · answer #2 · answered by Julia L. 6 · 0 0

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