What does it mean to "fulfill all righteousness"?

Question

In the book of Matthew, ch.3, Christ tells John the Baptist that He needs to be baptized to "fulfill all righteousness". So...what's He talking about? And furthermore, why did Christ need to be baptized if He was perfect? And why do little children need to be baptized? They don't know any better. Would God condemn a 2-yr old just because he/she hadn't been baptized?

Answer 1

WOW - this is a couple of questions.

1. To fulfill all righteousness - Jesus was setting the example. Baptism is a picture of the death, burial and resurrection that would come later. The ACT of baptism does NOT make a person a Christian but, rather, is an outward symbol of an inner committment.

2. Infant/Childhood baptism - Of course God would never condemn a child because of baptism. Children are not accountable for their sins and will not be held accountable until they are of an age where they can choose to accept or reject grace. That age, I believe, is different for each child, but God knows each heart - young or old.

Sometimes, parents baptize their children as a visual commitment to raise that child up by faith, in church.

Hope this helps!

Answer 2

Jesus was our example.
He was sinless, but was baptized for our example.
He said that he that belives AND is baptized shall be saved.
If he didn't get baptized, others would feel it's not necessary.
Infant baptism is not scriptural.
Jesus told his deciple to go and TEACH all nations, baptizing them in the name of the father, and of the son, and of the Holy Ghost.
You can't teach a baby.
Their was never a reference to babies being baptized in the Bible.
Children are sanctified by a believing parent.
Also, while we're on the subject of baptism; the Bible says that the disciples ALWAYS baptized in the name of Jesus or says in the name of the Lord (not Father, Son, & Holy Ghost).
The only way that makes sense is that the NAME of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost IS the name of the Lord Jesus Christ.