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Is this true? Can you explain to me why. Oh, and since you are sola scriptura people, can you give me a "proof."

2006-08-15 09:37:19 · 11 answers · asked by BigPappa 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I hate it when people let their sensitivity to necessary qualifiers get in the way of answering questions...

2006-08-15 09:52:34 · update #1

11 answers

IN Acts 10: 44-48. it talks about how peter was preaching to the Gentiles and the Holy Spirit fell on them and they began to speak in tongues because they believed what Peter was saying. And peter said for them to be baptized. So apparently they weren't born again, they were Gentiles. This is after Peter was told to kill and eat things that he considered unclean, but God said do not call unclean what God says is clean. SO who ever told you that give them this scripture

2006-08-15 09:51:49 · answer #1 · answered by justwondering 3 · 0 0

There are many misconceptions about the speaking in tongues. Actual speaking in tongues, is really speaking in a language that others know. Let's say I wanted to spread the word of Jesus to China, as I don't speak Chinese, it would be difficult, but God gave some the ability to speak this language, before they were taught how to speak it. The Holy Spirit descended on the disciples and they started talking in tongues, and the others around were amazed that they were speaking their language. If I was going to speak in China and couldn't then I would need an interpreter, because by talking in my language they wouldn't understand what I was saying. I don't think there is anywhere in the Bible where it says people were talking gibberish. It was in one of the languages that was there at the time.

2006-08-15 10:02:56 · answer #2 · answered by pooh bear 4 · 0 0

I've never heard of anyone in this century actually speaking in tongue. Speaking in tongue is speaking a different language, so they could communicate with people from other nations. It's not gibberish, which many people seem to think it is. God does not give us stupid gifts, like talking gibberish. His gifts have a purpose, like communicating with other people, in real words, not mindless gibberish, which any baby can do. So no, born again christian who say they have the gift of tongues, and can't speak another language, are just lying to themselves. It's probably not intentional, they simply don't know what speaking in tongue really means.

2006-08-15 09:54:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

So does that mean a person that is multi-lingual cannot speak in tongues? What clarifies speaking in tongues? All it is is a person who is saying something but no one knows what it is. So if a person in a religious fervor starts speaking in a different language it is tongues (but it could be Swahili and they know Swahili). With all the languages in the world speaking in tongues is now an archaic and lost belief. It is usually those of the Pentecostal faiths that have that anyways.

2006-08-15 10:00:07 · answer #4 · answered by ldyrhiannon 4 · 0 0

Read 1 Corinthians 12 "The Use of Spiritual Gifts" It discusses speaking in tongues as a gift given by God.

2006-08-15 09:43:15 · answer #5 · answered by Kayla 1 · 0 0

Hi again Papa

In ancient Jewish tradition Satan is simply an angel doing the work that God assigned to Satan to do.

The word Satan means challenger. With the idea of Satan challenging us, or tempting if you will. This description sees Satan as the angel who is the embodiment of man's challenges. This idea of Satan works closely with God as an integral part of God plan for us. His job is to make choosing good over evil enough of a challenge so that it becomes clear to us that there can be only one meaningful or logical choice.

Contrast this to Christianity, which sees Satan as God's opponent. In Jewish thought, the idea that there exists anything capable of setting itself up as God's opponent would be considered polytheistic or setting up the devil to be an equally powerful polarity to god or a demigod.

Oddly, proof for The Christian satan/devil mythology is supposedly found in the ancient Jewish texts that were borrowed to create the bible. One can’t help but wonder how Christians came up with such a fantastically different interpretation of Gods assistant Satan in their theology.

Other hints about Satan’s role in human relations can be seen if you look at the name Lucifer. It meaning in the original tongue translates as Light bearer or light bringer. Essentially the bringer of enlightenment. The temptations of the Satan idea bring all of us eventually into Gods light. Hardly the Evil entity of Christian mythology.

Love and blessings
don

2006-08-15 15:37:12 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Read 1st Cor Chpts 12-14

2006-08-15 09:52:07 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Tongues is a spiritual language which God gives to those who are over-flowing in God's Spirit, so yes, one has to be born again in order to speak in tongues, because when someone is born again, it means that their spirit has been given life by the Spirit of God. If someone is not born again by God's spirit, then they are spiritually dead. So, a spiritually dead person cannot speak in a spiritual language.

2006-08-15 09:53:57 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

of direction you would be born back. it relatively is basically that it demands death FIRST. the dominion of God is in heaven and flesh and blood can not enter heaven as 1Corinthians 15:50 it appears that evidently says. So JWs or no longer, there keeps to be that death section. No getting around that.

2016-11-04 21:14:32 · answer #9 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

it would depend upon your understanding of, "born again", i suppose. the apostles spoke in tongues, sez the generally accepted new testament, but they were recipients of the rite of baptism, which is considered a rebirth. sooo... y'might say anyone baptised - a catholic, for instance - could have the grace of tongues (i love saying this ****) bestowed upon him or her; of course, this is not what most, "born again"'s mean, today.

2006-08-15 09:46:18 · answer #10 · answered by altgrave 4 · 0 0

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