Why don't they pronouce the S with that sound too? I am just curious. Also, i find myself sometimes pronouncing the S sound like that on accident, any advice? Do native speakers ever do that? I mean most words i can tell if it is a C or Z but ya.. i dont know.
2006-08-15 07:34:36 · 8 answers · asked by Diego 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
that's the dialect in Spain...that's just how they talk. they use the same letters as we do in English, but sometimes the say them differently. the dialect in Latin-American countries is different depending on the country, but they mostly do the lisp-sounding thing in Spain.
in Spanish, the vowel sounds are universal, and regional accent come from how you say the consonants...its reverse in English...all our consonant sounds are the same, but regional accent comes from how you say the vowels (picture the difference between midwestern and southern and costal accents in the US)
2006-08-15 08:11:15 · answer #1 · answered by la wendada 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am from Venezuela and here we don't pronounce the C like a TH, only the Z. People in Spain pronounce the C and Z like TH, ONLY there nowhere else. Why? I can't tell you why, it's just the way the language evolved. It's like asking why the French pronounce the R like a gargling sound or why the The Asians write the way the do. It's just how their language evolved.
2006-08-15 08:25:38 · answer #2 · answered by Double You 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
In Spain they pronounce the C earlier E and that i because of the fact the TH in 3 in English. additionally they pronounce the Z in each and every of the situations because of the fact the TH in 3 in English. In all the different situations, they do no longer pronounce something like the TH in 3 in English. mentioned TH cielo, acero, haz, decir, zapato, hacía etc. no longer mentioned TH sientas, fiesta, sol, claro, hasta, nosotros, etc.
2016-09-29 07:27:46 · answer #3 · answered by laseter 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Spanish is writing and read the same all over the Latin America, but its pronuncation varies from one country to another... I would like to say that is it is like English, a person from Northeast of the states sound different from those in the Southwest.
2006-08-19 06:03:19 · answer #4 · answered by vortexx 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes there was that myth with king philip I, but it's not true....the spanish accent is called "ceceo" (pronounced thetheo) ...it's only in spain and NOT in mexico...the 's' sound is hard and the c or z is the th....to listen to a good "ceceo" accent listen to penelope cruz....most all native speakers use it.
2006-08-15 07:52:24 · answer #5 · answered by rachel k 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Supposedly King Phillip I lisped, and everyone began imitating him.
2006-08-15 07:42:21 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just... the way the language is, I guess. Not everything can be translated into perfect English.
2006-08-15 07:41:05 · answer #7 · answered by Jylsamynne 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
theyre lithpeans.
2006-08-15 07:39:40 · answer #8 · answered by enord 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋