Sorry, it's just a myth - see source below...
2006-08-15 07:05:28
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answer #1
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answered by joetho 3
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In Koine Greek, there is not any indefinite article ("a"); in the absence of a diverse article ("the") an indefinite article is often rightly assumed, yet even as there is not any certain article in the front of "God" in John a million:a million, we shouldn't anticipate an indefinite article. The textual content reads actually: "?? ???? ?? ? ?????, ??? ? ????? ?? ???? ??? ????, ??? ???? ?? ? ?????." In beginning grow to be the be conscious and the be conscious grow to be with the God, and God grow to be the be conscious. John has executed a good pastime of creating this sentence so as that he both announces Christ to be God even as also declaring that Christ and the daddy are literally not the same individual. Had he reported that the be conscious grow to be THE God, with a diverse article, he might want to have referred to as Jesus and the daddy thoroughly the same, which all of us recognize isn't the case. yet in the adventure that they don't look to be the same, why no longer call "the be conscious" (Jesus) yet another god? seem on the 2d clause fairly (??? ???? ?? ? ?????. - and God grow to be the be conscious.) be conscious that John has placed God, no longer the be conscious, on the start of the clause. that's how a speaker of Koine further emphasis to a be conscious, as if to underline it. So John is emphasizing Jesus' Godhood even as nevertheless isolating his personhood from the daddy, no longer arising a polytheistic plurality of Gods. Had he switched the order and placed "a god" on the end of the clause, then the indefinite article assumption might want to were a touch more effective functional. The context of the packed with scripture might want to be an sufficient handbook to respond to the question inspite of the undeniable fact that, as there is in uncomplicated words one God, and there might want to be no valid "a god." The NWT also makes many obtrusive interpretive blunders and may no longer be relied on more often than not. as an get at the same time, it erroneously inserts Jehovah each and every time the Greek obviously says "lord." This demonstrates the obtrusive biases of the translators in desire of a particular theological view.
2016-11-25 19:26:11
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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Even if it were true... that there was a long day somewhere back in time, we could never prove it because THERE IS NO CELESTIAL CLOCK. We have no way of knowing if time stood still or not at any point in history unless we had a time piece to compare our clocks to. There is no such animal in the universe and by Einsteinian relativity, different places in the universe have time going at different rates due to motion and gravity.
Sorry , sports fans, no cigar!
2014-02-22 14:43:28
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answer #3
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answered by stevmg 3
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Greetings,
I don't know about NASA,but I know that scince the bible is the word of truth and given to men through the Holy Spirit then anything found between its pages is of the truth.
2006-08-15 07:36:58
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answer #4
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answered by cobravetor 3
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the calendar has changed so many times over the centuries that there are probably a few "missing" days.
2006-08-15 07:10:15
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answer #5
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answered by greengunge 5
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It the earth stopped rotating ("lost day"), there would be no "mankind" to tell the tale. And, there would probably be no earth, either.
2006-08-15 07:11:18
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answer #6
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answered by Left the building 7
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and thay have found a way to clone jesus so he is on his way
2006-08-15 07:26:46
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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That's not true.
2006-08-15 07:04:45
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answer #8
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answered by Girl Wonder 5
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