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As recorded in the new testament.

2006-08-15 05:42:33 · 28 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

28 answers

He is misquoting the story of the Syrophainecian woman in Mark, she heard Jesus and his disiples were privately in the area and went to them

Jesus said to feed the children FIRST, he did nt say never

"it is not right to take the childrens food and throw it to the dogs, Jesus said, let the
even the puppies under the table get some family food, the womean relpied
for this answer she shall be healed, Jesus said"
my paraphrase

actually he did heal her (and it was more like a puppy)

he made a point that he came first to the Jews then to the gentiles

Jesus in fact healed Jews in person, in theri homes
jesus healed gentiles form a distance in 3 cases

the lady... she was not detered by the puppy comment... and her daughter was in fact healed

2006-08-15 05:47:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

reference?

2006-08-15 05:48:09 · answer #2 · answered by siroric 1 · 0 0

whirlingmerc has the correct answer. The Greek term that isn't translated well in most English Bibles has the idea of puppies, rather than of an adult dog. Jesus was using hyperbole, almost as a pun, in a way.

And Jesus did heal her daughter, so what's the problem? His mission was to go to the lost sheep of Israel. But He did heal several Gentiles along the way.

2006-08-15 05:50:24 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus did not refuse to heal the non Jew child until the mother of the child gave proper respect to Jesus whom she approached in ill manner. Not before she acknowledged him as a master and as king of the Jews and only after hearing her words that put him in the right prospect. Jesus told her that He came to the lost Sheep of Israel, and not for the dogs who were unworthy as her approach to Jesus was unacceptable. When she admitted the fact that even the dogs eat from the left over of their masters, Jesus then had mercy upon her child and healed her son. Jesus did not hold his power of healing the child until she accepted him as the Savior of Jews and of Gentiles.

2006-08-15 06:05:17 · answer #4 · answered by lonelyspirit 5 · 0 0

Because in those days, the Jews were considered the chosen ones only. The prophecy had been, that the messiah was supposed to come for the betterment of the Jews and no-one else. The Gentiles were classed as sub-humans, almost and it was common and acceptable in those times to refer to them as 'dogs'. History records this fact. When she first came to Jesus, he told her that dogs would not eat of children's bread. In her desperation, she retorted by stating that even dogs eat the scraps from the children's plates. Jesus was apparently so enamoured by her words, he retracted his statement by curing the womans daughter there and then. This is alledgedly the only time he went back on his word and was considered to correct his beliefs.
In the culture of the time, this action was utterly blasphemous and is thought to have contributed to his death sentence.

I, by the way, am not christian, nor religious.

2006-08-15 06:04:27 · answer #5 · answered by googlywotsit 5 · 0 0

Did you read the rest of the story? Guess not. Jesus told the woman that her faith had healed the child. Faith is the key. And before you start asking, there are more examples of this same faith healing in the New Testament. My suggestion is you read the entire Bible.

2006-08-15 05:51:43 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus' first responsibility grow to be to minister to the Jews. The Jews were prejudiced adversarial to Gentile countries and considered them as canine. So he drew on that prejudiced view as a try of that Greek lady's faith- the female herself being a Gentile. He used the be conscious which in the unique textual content is said 'kynarion' meaning little canine or pups. by technique of concerning Gentiles as little canine, that shows that he had compassion for non Jewish persons and did not view them in a prejudiced way like his fellow Jews. as a effect of the Greek lady choosing up on what Jesus grow to be saying and by no skill getting indignant, Jesus healed the female's daughter.

2016-11-25 19:19:54 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Matthew 15:21-28
Jesus answered this himself when he said he was only sent to the house of Israel. He did not call her a dog, but used a parrable to tell her that it was not right to take the bread of life from those it was given to in order to feed others and thus deprive those to whom it was given.
The woman understanding his parable then showed great faith in her response and Jesus then healed the child because of her great faith.

2006-08-15 05:55:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He was using an analogy and testing her. He didn't mean it really.

See St Matthew 15:26 (21-28) and St Mark 7:27 (24-30) for the reference.

2006-08-15 05:50:02 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As stated previously, you have misquoted the story.

Jesus used a parable about dogs to illustrate that though he gave life to all, he was still Jewish Savior - something that Muslims forget constantly.

Later, he did in fact heal the woman's daughter.

If it was an honest question, that is your simple answer. If it was a question to stir up strife, woe unto you.

.

2006-08-15 06:14:46 · answer #10 · answered by robabard 5 · 0 0

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