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Paul is adament that we are no longer under the law but under grace, and that the law ought to be done away with. Yet the commandments are part of the law, and Paul himself says that adulterers, idolaters, and the unclean will not inherit the kingdom of God. There are also scriptures that say we cannot sin without the law. How is all this explained??

2006-08-15 04:48:41 · 8 answers · asked by flournoi 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

in Ephesians 5:3-6 But fornication, and all uncleanness, or covetousness, let it not once be named among you, as becometh saints; neither filthiness, nor foolish talking, nor jesting, which are not convenient: but rather giving of thanks. For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean person, nor covetous man, who is an idolater, hath any inheritence in the kingdom of God. Let no man deceive YOU (he was speaking to the Saints!?) with vain words: for because of these things cometh the wrath of God upon the children of disobedience.

Since he was speaking to the saints, does this mean they could sin after the manner of the law??

2006-08-15 05:00:11 · update #1

8 answers

We choose whether to serve God, or the Flesh day by Day? That is why the Apostle was concerned about his own soul!~ Remember I die Daily in other words Paul was in a state of continual repentance day by day even though he was an Apostle of God. He had received salvation through his obedience to the Gospel yet he was aware of his sinful nature. A nature which was contrary to his desire to live for God. One example was where he admitted he was the chiefest of all sinners!

2006-08-15 05:18:04 · answer #1 · answered by Wayne S 3 · 0 0

Hiya,

This is a huge question. Moreover, this is a question that could take pages and pages to answer. I'll try and be brief: (Here goes)

Paul explains that we are no longer under the law that was being so blatantly disregarded by the then church leaders. The law that Paul is addressing is more of Deuteronomy, meaning, what can be eaten, what is clean and unclean, what is not to be eaten, and all of the other stipulations and human touches that MAN had done to the law. Try and remember what the church was like during Paul's time.

The spirituality of that time had become very secular wherein even various factions of Judism were against each other. The "priestly class" didn't like the "governing class" and both of those hated the more rigid class. Many scholars believe that John the Baptist was one of these very disgruntled people who left to go learn, grow, and live until his moment was to come.

We all must remember that at the coming of Christ a brand new Covenant began. This is what Paul, I believe, is referring too. Imagine looking around and seeing the church at odds with the government, and everyone else being really angry because a vile and greedy country found fit to oversee them. That would be like say Iran taking control of the USA.

However, Paul never states not to obey the Commandments; indeed, quite the contrary! If possible, look toward the teaching of Christ to really come to an understanding of what and where Paul was coming from. Oh yes, Paul is also addressing a different kind of "unclean" with emphasis; I believe that what Paul is exhorting is what would be considered the "old law" which was made, adjusted, and twisted by MAN. The new law under grace, is definitely the new and delivered covenant by God in the form of his son, Jesus.

Hope this kind of helps.

2006-08-15 12:12:59 · answer #2 · answered by Ring 2 · 0 0

We are not under the Mosaic law except what was carried through by Jesus, and what is apart of Christ's Law. People confuse the explanations the apostles give concerning the Mosaic law, and feel Christians are not under any law at all. That is wrong and contradictory to the admonitions found in the new testament.

2006-08-15 11:58:34 · answer #3 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0 0

Jesus and the Mosaic Law


Many Christians are perplexed when they confront the issue of the Mosaic Law. How binding is the Law on the Christian? Some have said that Jesus abolished the Law of Moses. I would have to disagree, based on the following passage spoken by Jesus Himself:

Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. (Matthew 5:17)
Some have suggested that by "fulfil," Jesus meant "abolish." Indeed, "abolish" is one meaning of "fulfil," but it is also the only meaning of "destroy." So if He had meant "abolish," He might as well have said, "I am not come to abolish, but to abolish." We can assume, therefore, that Jesus meant, "to develop the full potentialities of" when He said "fulfil."

So why then do Christians not observe the Mosaic Law? The answer is that they do observe parts, but not all of it. Some parts of the Law were meant to be temporary, while others were intended to be permanent. This is seen in the fact that before Moses, the ancient Jews were not bound to the ritual commands (except circumcision). If the Mosaic Law was not meant to be temporary, then either God changes or the God of the righteous men and women before Moses was a different god. But this is absurd. We know that the God of Abraham was the God of Moses, and that He is our God today. The coming of Christ made parts of the Mosaic law unnecessary.


In order to understand this, we must realize that the Law is made up of three parts: ceremonial, civil, and moral.


The ceremonial law related specifically to Israel's worship. Since its primary purpose was to point to the coming Savior, Jesus made it unnecessary. He did not abolish it, in the sense of destroying it; He fulfilled it. Nowhere do we read that Jesus thought that the ceremonial law was wrong. The principles behind the ceremonial law are still applicable to us today, that is, the principles of worshipping and serving a holy God.


The civil law prescribed rules for the Israelites' daily living. These laws separated the Jews from the Gentiles, and gave the Gentiles the example of how a holy people should live. Since much was given to the Jews, much was expected. But God gave a new covenant in Christ, and there is now no distinction to be made between Jew and Gentile. We are still to follow the requirements of this law as God's people, but the punishments are not for any nation to impose on its people, because we are no longer separated by nations but by God's grace (Christians and non-Christians).


The moral law is basically the Ten Commandments. We are still bound by these laws, not for salvation, but to live a holy life. Jesus not only desired that His followers adhere to these commandments, He wished that they would go above and beyond them. He said, "Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not kill; and whosoever shall kill shall be in danger of the judgment: but I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment..." He desired not only an outward observance of these laws, but an inward observance as well.


So we see that the parts of the Law that have been rendered obsolete are those that contain ordinances. An ordinance is either a memorial of something that has already passed or a type of something in the future. The Old Testament laws containing ordinances were not meant to be permanent. There are no ordinances in the Ten Commandment Law.


Now, we must remember that following rules and regulations will not get us into heaven. It is only through the blood of Jesus that we can see heaven. But if we love Him, we will keep His commandments.

2006-08-15 11:59:22 · answer #4 · answered by williamzo 5 · 0 0

The Law is still the law.

Through Christ all sins can be forgiven now (right now). The unforgivable sin is not yet!

The Law that you will not cut the corners of your beard, still applies, I shave, and will be forgiven for shaving what little beard I grow. Through Christ it will not be held against me.
I am not proud of this sin, nor do I brag that I am in this sinning, but it will not be held against me.

But I am to know all the laws, and to ask for forgiveness and to have it those I am unable to observe, over looked.

2006-08-15 14:36:49 · answer #5 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0 0

I just found out this morning from Microsoft Encylcopedia that the law of Moses was not written by Moses in 1400 BC but it was written in 500BC by some priests who called it the law of Moses. Also many 19th & 20th century bible scholars & theologicans say the same thing. In fact, the majority of the books of the OT were not written by the author whom they are named after by many many other writers. Isaiah was written by at least 3 persons, possibly more. The bible - OT & NT- was written by man not god.

2006-08-15 11:55:34 · answer #6 · answered by ? 5 · 0 0

I'm sorry I don't have time to fully answer your question, but Paul does not say that the law should be abolished. He says that it is the law that makes us guilty of sinning, because if we didn't know what was wrong, we could not intentionally do wrong.

2006-08-15 11:56:11 · answer #7 · answered by smartee 4 · 0 0

If Paul believes this then that would me that he himself cannot inherit the kingdom of God. Before Paul was Paul he was Saul and crucified & tortured Christians. If Paul can be forgiven then anyone can...

2006-08-15 11:54:21 · answer #8 · answered by Rance D 5 · 0 0

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