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2006-08-14 19:31:32 · 11 answers · asked by Darth Jhon 3 in Science & Mathematics Geography

Can u give me some examples?

2006-08-14 19:41:32 · update #1

11 answers

Certainly, depending on land ownership laws in that country. Owning property in one country does not make it part of the owning country or foreign corporation. The property is still part of the host country, and the owner (whether a foreign country or a foreign corportation or even a foreign individual) still has to obey the laws of the host country, including paying taxes. Often times in situations that are country-to-country, the host country and owning country might set up agreements setting up specific rules for control.

For instance, the United States government leases the land that are part of the Guantanamo Bay Naval Base on Cuba. This deal was set up as part of the treaty in 1903 at the end of the Spanish-American War, and was made permanent in 1934. Technically the land belongs to Cuba, and is paid for annually, but for all intensive purposes, it is under US law. The United States leases land for its military bases around the world, often in agreements that are quite favorable to the US (ie the host country can't kick the US out if it wanted to, unless the US chose to leave). In these cases, the land is governed by US law.

The United Kingdom secured control of Hong Kong island in 1842, and leased the New Territories for 99 years. At the end of the lease (in 1997), the UK returned all of Hong Kong to Chinese control (although technically they only had to return the New Territories, as they outright owned Hong Kong Island and Kowloon).

One recent issue in foreign ownership was when the US government was contemplating selling control (management) of US seaports to a foreign company (Dubai Ports World) that was in part owned by the government of the United Arab Emirates.

2006-08-15 07:58:13 · answer #1 · answered by jawajames 5 · 0 0

If the independent country wishes to sell another country some land and they agree on a price, then yes.

2006-08-14 19:38:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

yes they can own, but either by some deals, owing to some reasons, as oin the case of UK owing the France's land.
Or it can be grabbed by force & that the other country tries to resolve the case by talks, & the grabber not listening, just like Pakistan grabbed the Kashmir parts from India. China claims regions from East Laddakh & Arunachal Pradesh of India, had occupied, but not shown on maps, where as Pak showing the POK on maps too.

2006-08-15 19:02:17 · answer #3 · answered by Ashish B 4 · 0 0

Look At Queen Elizabeth II of England. She owns the French region known as the Aquitaine. All taxes from this region go into the British treasury.

2006-08-14 19:42:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

an Island in the Caribbean is not any diverse from a plot of land everywhere in the US--it is already difficulty to the sovereignity of a few us of a that could likely no longer be keen to allow your island to secede.

2016-11-25 01:51:36 · answer #5 · answered by cosner 4 · 0 0

as territory yes like Hongkong was once a British territory, Macao- Portuguese, Philippines- Spain

2006-08-14 19:46:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I just want to answer the guy that talked about foreign investment.
Do you want them to stop investing here ? Do you know the word "economics"?

2006-08-14 20:00:23 · answer #7 · answered by Smily O 2 · 0 0

Yeah, for all intents and purposes, we own Gitmo.

2006-08-14 20:03:44 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yes , this is not unusual. -large parts of the USA have been sold to arab and chinese investors.

2006-08-14 19:38:19 · answer #9 · answered by brainstorm 7 · 0 1

there alot of caribbean islands and there are some placaes in asia

2006-08-14 21:48:38 · answer #10 · answered by sub-zero ide 2 · 0 0

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