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if anything over itself is 1
if anything over 0 is underfined
if 0 over anything is zero
what is zero over zero

2006-08-14 19:04:12 · 17 answers · asked by mrada6 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

17 answers

it is an undefined quantity. Any number, even zero, divided by zero is undefined.

it is not infinity, it is not one, and it is not zero. it is undefined. period.

2006-08-14 19:06:52 · answer #1 · answered by a_liberal_economist 3 · 3 1

0/0 is undefined yes, but in certain circumstances the limit may be evaluated.
There's a helpful relation between limits in mathematical analysis known as L'Hopital's rule(sorry about the missing accent)
this basically states that if,
lim f(x) / g(x) = 0 / 0
x->a
That is f(a) = 0 and g(a)=0
f(a) / g(a) = f'(a) / g'(a)

That is the ratio of the functions equal the respective ratio of their derivatives. The proof is quite elementary and a simple search will give you a myriad of links.
The most common application is that as x->0 sin x / x = cos x / 1
= 1
The most important feature here is that the proof works even when for x->a, a=0, infinity, or a complex number.
This solves the issue as to 'from where' the function approaches the value that would yield a zero over zero.

eg.
in it's simplest form
as x->0
x/x = 1/1= 1
but -x/x= -1/1 = -1

Zero is a pivotal value somewhat like (if I may speak abstractly) a pole in the number system, standard definitions don't work there.
Also the result of a zero over a zero may be a value other that 1,-1...eg.
lim x-> 45
(sin x - cos x) / x - 45 = 2V2

where x is in degrees.

2006-08-14 20:26:57 · answer #2 · answered by yasiru89 6 · 1 0

Division is usually taken to be the opposite of multiplication. So the question is, what number multiplied by 0 is equal to 0? Or algebraically, solve 0 x a = 0. But *every* number is a solution to this! It doesn't make sense to pick a particular value, so we don't define one.

I want to make a remark for people making limit arguments.

If a is any number, then the limit of ax/x as x goes to 0 is a.

Also x^2/x goes to 0, x/x^2 goes to infinity, and -x/x^2 goes to negative infinity.

These are all the "0/0" indeterminate form, and you see you can get any number, including the infinities. You can even get "complex infinities", for example using ix/x^2.

But you wouldn't expect calculus to resolve such a purely algebraic question.

2006-08-15 01:16:36 · answer #3 · answered by Steven S 3 · 1 1

The answer to your question lies in college level calculus classes. The answer is relative to the equation which produces that situation. That is, for f(x)/(g(y) where f(x) = 0 and g(y) = 0.

In most cases, 0/0 is 1, as both factors are approaching 0 from the same "direction." This means that f(x) is approaching 0 from a positive value, and g(y) is similarly approaching 0 from a positive value. Likewise, if both factors are increasing towards 0 from negative values.

Sometimes, however, the answer is, in fact, -1. In that case, both functions are approaching 0 from opposite values. For example, f(x) approaches 0 from a positive value, and g(y) approaches 0 from a negative value.

2006-08-14 20:05:25 · answer #4 · answered by Jim T 6 · 0 1

Maths deals with quantities or magnitudes zero is just a place holder for our number system. Or it can mean no difference.
To have a zero result in a term often means a wrong assumption or priority.
I would love to see a proof that a^0 = 1 that doesn't use circular reasoning or convention (it is a good convention though)

2006-08-14 19:43:09 · answer #5 · answered by slatibartfast 3 · 0 2

In mathematical analysis, and in particular in elementary calculus certain expressions are indeterminate forms, and must be treated as symbolic only, until more careful discussion has taken place. 0/0 form has no definite meaning, as division by zero is not a meaningful operation in arithmetic.

2006-08-14 20:30:25 · answer #6 · answered by ardni_987 2 · 0 1

undefined, but the limit as n->0 of 0/n is zero

2006-08-14 19:09:48 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

Any number divided by zero, including zero itself is still undefined.

2006-08-14 19:24:50 · answer #8 · answered by Kevin H 7 · 1 1

It's amazing how many times this question gets asked and how many people answer when they just don't have a clue.

0/0 is UNDEFINED. It is a NO-NO. It is NOT ALLOWED.

Does that make it plain enough?


Doug

2006-08-14 20:48:21 · answer #9 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 2

0/0 is infinity

2006-08-14 23:42:49 · answer #10 · answered by craaazyy_boyy 1 · 0 1

The correct logic is:

Anything over itself is 1, EXCEPT 0.

etc. etc.

0 over itself is still 0, because you're basically asking what is nothing divided by nothing.

Ask the reverse... what is infinity over infinity? Or plus infinity? Or multiplied? Same thing ;-)

The answer to your question = 0.

-Daniel

2006-08-14 19:07:20 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

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