it is an undefined quantity. Any number, even zero, divided by zero is undefined.
it is not infinity, it is not one, and it is not zero. it is undefined. period.
2006-08-14 19:06:52
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answer #1
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answered by a_liberal_economist 3
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0/0 is undefined yes, but in certain circumstances the limit may be evaluated.
There's a helpful relation between limits in mathematical analysis known as L'Hopital's rule(sorry about the missing accent)
this basically states that if,
lim f(x) / g(x) = 0 / 0
x->a
That is f(a) = 0 and g(a)=0
f(a) / g(a) = f'(a) / g'(a)
That is the ratio of the functions equal the respective ratio of their derivatives. The proof is quite elementary and a simple search will give you a myriad of links.
The most common application is that as x->0 sin x / x = cos x / 1
= 1
The most important feature here is that the proof works even when for x->a, a=0, infinity, or a complex number.
This solves the issue as to 'from where' the function approaches the value that would yield a zero over zero.
eg.
in it's simplest form
as x->0
x/x = 1/1= 1
but -x/x= -1/1 = -1
Zero is a pivotal value somewhat like (if I may speak abstractly) a pole in the number system, standard definitions don't work there.
Also the result of a zero over a zero may be a value other that 1,-1...eg.
lim x-> 45
(sin x - cos x) / x - 45 = 2V2
where x is in degrees.
2006-08-14 20:26:57
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answer #2
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answered by yasiru89 6
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Division is usually taken to be the opposite of multiplication. So the question is, what number multiplied by 0 is equal to 0? Or algebraically, solve 0 x a = 0. But *every* number is a solution to this! It doesn't make sense to pick a particular value, so we don't define one.
I want to make a remark for people making limit arguments.
If a is any number, then the limit of ax/x as x goes to 0 is a.
Also x^2/x goes to 0, x/x^2 goes to infinity, and -x/x^2 goes to negative infinity.
These are all the "0/0" indeterminate form, and you see you can get any number, including the infinities. You can even get "complex infinities", for example using ix/x^2.
But you wouldn't expect calculus to resolve such a purely algebraic question.
2006-08-15 01:16:36
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answer #3
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answered by Steven S 3
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The answer to your question lies in college level calculus classes. The answer is relative to the equation which produces that situation. That is, for f(x)/(g(y) where f(x) = 0 and g(y) = 0.
In most cases, 0/0 is 1, as both factors are approaching 0 from the same "direction." This means that f(x) is approaching 0 from a positive value, and g(y) is similarly approaching 0 from a positive value. Likewise, if both factors are increasing towards 0 from negative values.
Sometimes, however, the answer is, in fact, -1. In that case, both functions are approaching 0 from opposite values. For example, f(x) approaches 0 from a positive value, and g(y) approaches 0 from a negative value.
2006-08-14 20:05:25
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answer #4
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answered by Jim T 6
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Maths deals with quantities or magnitudes zero is just a place holder for our number system. Or it can mean no difference.
To have a zero result in a term often means a wrong assumption or priority.
I would love to see a proof that a^0 = 1 that doesn't use circular reasoning or convention (it is a good convention though)
2006-08-14 19:43:09
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answer #5
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answered by slatibartfast 3
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In mathematical analysis, and in particular in elementary calculus certain expressions are indeterminate forms, and must be treated as symbolic only, until more careful discussion has taken place. 0/0 form has no definite meaning, as division by zero is not a meaningful operation in arithmetic.
2006-08-14 20:30:25
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answer #6
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answered by ardni_987 2
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undefined, but the limit as n->0 of 0/n is zero
2006-08-14 19:09:48
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Any number divided by zero, including zero itself is still undefined.
2006-08-14 19:24:50
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answer #8
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answered by Kevin H 7
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It's amazing how many times this question gets asked and how many people answer when they just don't have a clue.
0/0 is UNDEFINED. It is a NO-NO. It is NOT ALLOWED.
Does that make it plain enough?
Doug
2006-08-14 20:48:21
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answer #9
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answered by doug_donaghue 7
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0/0 is infinity
2006-08-14 23:42:49
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answer #10
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answered by craaazyy_boyy 1
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The correct logic is:
Anything over itself is 1, EXCEPT 0.
etc. etc.
0 over itself is still 0, because you're basically asking what is nothing divided by nothing.
Ask the reverse... what is infinity over infinity? Or plus infinity? Or multiplied? Same thing ;-)
The answer to your question = 0.
-Daniel
2006-08-14 19:07:20
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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