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Let g(x) be a function such that g(x+1) + g(x-1)=g(x) for every real x.Then for what value of p is the relation g(x+p)=g(x) necessarily true for every real x?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 6

2006-08-14 18:35:15 · 4 answers · asked by Rohit C 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

I am unable to construct such a function except for the trivial g(x) = 0 for all x. For this function, any p would do.

2006-08-14 18:46:25 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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2016-12-14 06:00:57 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

frankly i feel it will be true for p=0 alone

2006-08-14 23:10:30 · answer #3 · answered by raj 7 · 0 0

Answer is d.

2006-08-14 18:54:28 · answer #4 · answered by Taki 2 · 0 0

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