I like following this discussion. Quite interesting
There is a purely formal reason, I believe. Both Franco-Polish Kasprzycki-Gamelin Convention and Polish-British Common Defence Pact obliged signing countries to provide military help to each other in case of a war with Nazi Germany. Soviet Union at the time of preparation of these documents was not considered to be a German ally.
I think you have to agree that even declaration of war to Germany was quite formal at the beginning (remember "phony war"?)
All other events (Finland, Baltics, Romania) came few months later.
Anyway, I think this fact (non declaration of war) probably made possible a future alliance between UK, USA and USSR. No matter how unlikely and fragile it was, it played an enormous role in the outcome of the War.
2006-08-16 21:06:54
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answer #1
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answered by hec 5
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They could not afford an alliance between the two powers (Soviet Union and Germany) so early in the conflict. Also they were well aware of the fragility concerning the Ribbentrop-Molotov Non-Aggresion pact. The Allies probably supposed that Hitler will attempt an invasion of Russia long before the Barbarossa plan was put into action. So the plan was to fight against one enemy in Europe and then let the Soviets and the Nazis wage war on each other. By using this strategy the Allies hoped the two military powers would be destroyed and never again pose any threat to world security. But they were only partially right, as Stalin's power grew even greater after the war was ended.
2006-08-15 06:19:09
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answer #2
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answered by alex 2
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No Russia and Germany were not allies. Russia and Germany had a non aggression pact. Hitler was anticommunist. That was made apparent in the 30's. It would be more correct to say anti Bolshevic. Bolshevism was a Jewish phenomena. About that time Britain made a lot of pro zionist decisions (1893: Nathan Birnbaum introduces the term "Zionism.") Probably the most famous is the Balfour Declaration a statement issued by the British government in 1917, which is often seen as the initiation of the process leading to the establishment of the State of Israel.
Issuing of the statement is believed to have been motivated just as much by British interests, as by the sympathy for the Zionist cause. At the eve of the World War I Britain needed the support from the World Jewry, which had been neutral, and which represented a large part of the population of Germany and Austria-Hungary. The declaration was drafted with the help of US President, Woodrow Wilson, who was a strong supporter of Zionism.
2006-08-16 16:47:56
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answer #3
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answered by Kirk M 4
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Most of what the posters have written is true. England know it could not win a war with both Germany and Russia and since Russia was not a immediate threat like Germany, England choose not to declare war. They did however portray Stalin and communism in general as power hungry and territory grabbers. This image was quickly changed after 1941. England remade Stalin's image to make the alliance more palatable for the English people. The answer is that England did not want to bite off more then it could chew.
2006-08-15 06:09:02
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answer #4
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answered by Jeffery B 2
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It was a political decision. Germany was the more overt aggressor. Russia went in to pick up the spoils after September 17. Britain and France were probably embarrassed because they had been courted by Russia to join an alliance against Hitler. When they chose instead to appease Germany, the Russians made their own deal. The Allies were also at a loss how to even attack Germany, let alone fight Russia. The first 6 months of fighting in the west was called the "phony war".
2006-08-14 22:19:13
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answer #5
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answered by Woody 6
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Dear lascap,
imagine you were in their shoes those days... You are, let's say, the English. You have France as an ally, but half of them are actually going along with the Nazis! You can't count on anyone else in Europe - in fact, in the whole world! There is Germany, united with Austria, big and powerfull, going over Poland like it's nothing! Russia has with Germany only a non agrresion treaty, not actually their ally. Plus, its a country with 200 million people, also big and mighty. Why make an enemy, especially of that kind, before neccesary, when you allready have one such as those days Germany? Would you have made war with Russia in these conditions? I wouldn't!
2006-08-14 22:33:23
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answer #6
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answered by Uros I 4
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In the process of invading the Soviet Union, Nazi Germany ultimately killed thirty million Russians with the loss of just more than three million men (I really hope I got my numbers right, but its the vast difference I'm aiming for). Armed with the most technologically advanced weapons in the world, the rolled way into Russian territory and then surrounded all of their largest cities and industrial centres then laid waste to them. German soldiers were mowing down Russian fighters who were going into battle sometimes without proper footwear, clothing and sometimes even weapons. They did all that damage AND THEY STILL LOST. Napolean learned the same lesson a century and a half earlier too. Go ahead and declare war on the Russians. Go ahead and attack. You'll just be signing your own death warrant. The British and the French didn't declare war the Russians because they weren't that dumb. The knew they were going to have a hell of a time fighting Hitler, their guarantees to Poland had only ever been made vis-a-vis Hitler, and they weren't ready to do anything about it anyway. There was no way they could have done anything about the Russians in 1939 and as much as the west and Stalin were at loggerheads at the time, you can not tell me the West was not planning on Stalin being of use to them against Hitler. Obviously we all should be glad he was.
2006-08-15 04:00:21
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answer #7
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answered by Johnny Canuck 4
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"Hitler had been "allowed" to annex Austria in March 1938 (Anschluss) and was given part of Czechoslovakia at the September Munich Conference taking the rest in March 1939." http://www.cccoe.k12.ca.us/abomb/popups/wwii.htm).
England and France had given Germany concessions in return for peace ("Appeasement").
"A deal was reached, however, and on September 29, Adolf Hitler, Neville Chamberlain, Ãdouard Daladier and Benito Mussolini signed the Munich Agreement. The Czechoslovak government capitulated September 30 and agreed to abide by the agreement. The settlement gave Germany the Sudetenland starting October 10, and de facto control over the rest of Czechoslovakia as long as Hitler promised to go no further.
Hitler and Chamberlain signed an additional resolution determining to resolve all future disputes between Germany and the United Kingdom through peaceful means.." (Wikipedia)
When Germany invaded Poland it was a violation of the Munich Agreement and England & France declared war on Hitler. Russia was not a party to these non-aggression agreements.
Most likely Russia was not seen as that much of a threat by England and France. Unlike Hitler, Stalin had not threatened war or invasion before 1939.
2006-08-15 01:49:19
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answer #8
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answered by Roswellfan 3
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At that time, Russia, rather Communism, was the big threat, and it was causing big revolts in major cities. Facism was the opposite of Communism and England and France were hoping Hitler to curb that spread of radical ideas. Then Hitler showed that he was crazy signing non-agression pacts with Russia and invading different lands. England and France were so shaken by revolt they were in no shape to take on an isane dictator in a growingly prosperous country, let alone deal with the russians, which had a booming industry after his five year plans (yes i know Stalin was in the midst of killing tens of millions, they were still powerful though) You must understand Europe was always about maintaining a Balance of Power and Germany was taking control. That fetish is what helped bring Russia and England eventually together.
2006-08-15 03:22:24
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answer #9
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answered by . 2
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Well, Russia wasn't a military threat to England or France, seeing how it's on the other side of that place called Germany.
2006-08-15 03:10:35
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answer #10
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answered by chris 4
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