2006-08-14 08:25:37 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Atlas Shrugged. The immovable movers go on strike.
Who is John Galt?
Ask better questions, get better answers.
2006-08-17 16:32:38 · answer #1 · answered by Roger N 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, that is a scientifically invalid question that can only be answered in the abstract world of mathematics. As such it can have several equally valid answers. It's more of a philosophical question than a physics question.
In effect that question is asking:
If an object with infinite mass was moving and collided with another object with infinite inertia, what would happen?
However, in the physical universe in which we live, even if infinity were possible, both objects could not exist at the same time. Their individual definitions prohibit it because both would have to be infinite at the same time. This makes no physical sense.
Consider this:
How could one object be infinite when any other object exists with it in the same universe?
No physical universe can contain two physically infinite masses.
In an abstract mathematical universe, just about anything we want to imagine is possible because we make the rules to suit ourselves. Our physical universe is not as flexible as the mathematical one because we don't make or control the rules that regulate the physical universe.
Just because it can be done on paper, there is no mandatory law that it must be true in the physical universe as well.
2006-08-14 15:48:30 · answer #2 · answered by Jay T 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
This question has been asked many times. As neither an immovable object nor an unstoppable force actually exist, the question can only be answered in theory. The most widely accepted theory holds that they would annihilate each other with a release of the energy contained in the two objects.
2006-08-14 15:36:50 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Never happen. Both objects are rooted in infinity. An nonstopable object has an infinite of kenitic energy. An Immovable object has infinite rest mass.
Just in case: The total destruction of the universe at the speed of light
2006-08-14 15:37:40 · answer #4 · answered by Jeff C 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Impossible.
The only way for an unstoppable object to exist would be for it have an infinite amount of either mass or velocity. Same goes for the immovable object.
However, to answer your quesiton: Probably a huge spacial orgasm..
It's kind of like asking what would happen below 0K. Probably a hole in space as the only way for it to be below 0K would be for there to literarily be nothing there.
2006-08-14 16:52:25 · answer #5 · answered by Krzysztof_98 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I asked a little girl I was babysitting this question once (I think she was about 6 years old, maybe). She simply replied that the unstopable object would go around the other. From the mouths of babes....
2006-08-14 15:40:19 · answer #6 · answered by kris 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is an impossible situation, as only 1 of those 2 objects could theoratically exist. It wouldnt bounce off because that would require it decellerating from its present speed to 0, and then accelerating back the other way.
2006-08-14 16:21:59 · answer #7 · answered by Adam 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How about it makes an invisible hole through the middle of the immovable object? Sounds cooler.
2006-08-14 15:37:02 · answer #8 · answered by slandguy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This question has been repeated many time and it made such a sense that i could not understanda thing about it.
First of all every thing in the Universe continually moves ,Hence the reality is that there is nothing that is immovable.
so you can see why I cant understand a thing about your question.
2006-08-14 16:08:20 · answer #9 · answered by goring 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The unstoppable object would bounce off, but maintain its speed.
Come on, give us a challenge.
2006-08-14 15:33:33 · answer #10 · answered by kheserthorpe 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋