So I am going to crush it right now
the book of Matthew 1:22-23 states: "Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, "Behold a virgin shall be with child and will bear a son and they shall call his name Emmanuel,' which translated means, G-d with us." Missionaries claim that this is the fulfillment of a prophecy recorded in Isaiah 7:14, that actually reads: "Behold, the young woman is with child and will bear a son and she will call his name Emmanuel."
There are numerous inaccuracies in the Christian translation. For example:
1) The Hebrew word, "almah -," means a young woman, not a virgin, a fact recognized by biblical scholars;
2) The verse says "ha'almah--," "the young woman," not a young woman, specifying a particular woman that was known to Isaiah during his lifetime; and
3) The verse says "she will call his name Emmanuel," not "they shall call."
2006-08-13
16:06:34
·
16 answers
·
asked by
Gamla Joe
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Even apart from these inaccuracies, if we read all of Isaiah Chapter 7, from which this verse is taken, it is obvious that Christians have taken this verse out of context.
This chapter speaks of a prophecy made to the Jewish King Ahaz to allay his fears of two invading kings (those of Damascus and of Samaria) who were preparing to invade Jerusalem, about 600 years before Jesus' birth. Isaiah's point is that these events will take place in the very near future (and not 600 years later, as Christianity claims). Verse 16 makes this abundantly clear: "For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken."
In fact, in the very next chapter this prophecy is fulfilled with the birth of a son to Isaiah. As it says in Isaiah 8:4, "For before the child shall know to cry, "My father and my mother' the riches of Damascus and the spoils of Samaria shall be taken away before the king of Assyria."
2006-08-13
16:06:56 ·
update #1
This verse entirely rules out any connection to Jesus, who would not be born for 600 years
So in short how can anyone say this verse refers to Jesus in any way shape or form. Please show me where I am wrong
2006-08-13
16:08:31 ·
update #2
If they accept that almah doesn't mean Virgin then they have to accept Mathew made a mistake possibly nullifying the Book of Mathew. They won't be doing this anytime soon. This is just one of many "tweaks" they have made to prop up their beliefs.
2006-08-14 08:34:30
·
answer #1
·
answered by Quantrill 7
·
2⤊
1⤋
The main reason we know Isaiah is truly speaking about the Virgin Mary is that Matthew specifically states as much in his Gospel, and no one living in Isaiah's time or Matthew's time ever understood the passage to refer to anything other than a virgin.
Modern "scholars" (critics) love wasting everyone's time on this kind of stuff, but they have nothing new to add, other than their overblown opinions and wacko linguistic theories.
What kind of a sign would it be for a young woman to give birth to a child? Any normal young woman can give birth!
Now, a virgin giving birth is a sign from God!
The rest of your premises are just that ... your premises ... and you're no St. Matthew.
I'll stick with him!
2006-08-14 01:10:13
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
You are right! Good language research! You get a gold star.
I also think the virgin birth thing may have been added on later because other religions did the same. Dionysus had a virgin mom, and he came back from the dead. Was Gilgamesh's mom also a virgin? Virgin births were very popular in that day and age.
2006-08-17 19:53:21
·
answer #3
·
answered by Mrs. Pears 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
grat, my good friend,
Unfortunately, I think our intelligence is wasted on this crowd.
I have *never* received a good answer to this question.
(And one j4j had the audacity, and stupidity, to tell me the idea was "drush", rofl! Of course, when asked, he admitted to not having studied any talmud! lol)
oh, and if someone disagrees with the translation of alma as "young girl", another point you can raise is that the KJV correctly translates it in proverbs 30 (I believe) as young woman. funny that only in isaiah 7 it suddenly becomes a virgin?
oh, and perhaps the funniest reply to this I've received: Well, if she was young then she was probably a virgin!
rofl! ("umm, even if that was the case -- that doesn't imply that she'd give birth while *remaining* a virgin! rofl)
good luck!
2006-08-13 23:21:50
·
answer #4
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
0⤋
Thank you, to our newest Biblical scholar for clearing up all Christian inaccuracies. The rest of your tribe have long ago dismissed the literal interpretation of the miraculous virgin-birth of Jesus.
2006-08-16 15:56:16
·
answer #5
·
answered by Beamer 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
I think yourlogic is just fine. The bible contains dozens of internal contradictions (as well as hundreds of errors of fact), so reading it as anything other than interesting fiction is a waste of time.
2006-08-13 23:13:53
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋
well i didnt exactly read all of this but most but anyway u just need to keep reading the bible and you will understand it beleieve me i am a very storng christian and just because you dont understand something in the bible doesnt mean u have to stop reading it.
2006-08-13 23:19:09
·
answer #7
·
answered by Mary!! 3
·
0⤊
1⤋
Thanks for clearing this up.
Recently many Christian scholars and Christian bibles have taken note of , and corrected these inaccuracies.
2006-08-14 05:22:03
·
answer #8
·
answered by mo mosh 6
·
2⤊
0⤋
12 QUESTIONS TO THE NON-BELIEVERS IN YAHSHUAH AS THE PROMISED MESSIAH
by Obadiyah Ysrayl- something about his words that are just undebatable.
Go down to question 6 yes he do have it together don't he. But read it in order he setting you up.
"Emmanuel"? Immanuel
2006-08-15 00:58:54
·
answer #9
·
answered by justme 5
·
0⤊
3⤋
In Jesus dwells ALL the fullness of the Godhead bodily (Col.2:9 below) -
oGod the Father
oThe Holy Spirit of God the Father
oThe Word of God the Father
The only begotten son of God the Father (Jn.1:14 below), Jesus (the Word - Jn.1:1, Jn.1:14 below), His beloved Son (Matt.3:17 below), was conceived of the Holy Ghost (Matt.1:20 below).
It is God the Father who conceived in Mary (blessed among women) His very Word through His very Holy Spirit (Matt.1:20 below).
Col.2:9 For in him dwelleth ALL the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
Jn.1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, (Matt.1:20, Matt.3:17 below)) full of grace and truth.
Jn.1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God (Re.1:6, Lk.1:47 below).
Re.1:6And hath made us kings and priests unto God (Jn.1:1 above) AND his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
Lk.1:47And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour (Jn.1:14, Jn.1:1, Re.1:6 above).
Lk.1:68 Blessed [be] the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people,
Matt.3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son (Matt.1:20 below), in whom I am well pleased.
Matt.1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is OF the Holy Ghost (Jn.1:14, Matt.3:17 above).
Pat (ndbpsa ©)
2006-08-14 20:53:22
·
answer #10
·
answered by BibleProphecyOnTheWeb 5
·
0⤊
1⤋