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If so, why?
If not, why?

2006-08-13 09:55:11 · 8 answers · asked by chris p 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

Yes, as yo why, Well to me that sounds like a Calvinistic question or a question that would involve a debate between Calvinist and Arminianist. and I dont care to get into that just now but if it is, I say this this definition of election the best or the only possible definition supported by the scripture? I don't believe so in light of the following verses.

1 Peter 1:1-2, "Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the pilgrims of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappodocia, Asia, and Bithynia, elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied." (New King James Version)

The Greek word for the phrase "who are chosen" is transliterated "Eklektos" and means "the elect". It is the same word used Romans 8:33 & 16:13; Col. 3:12; 2 Tim. 2:10; Titus 1:1 and Rev. 17:14 among other references. It is always used in reference to God's chosen people i.e. those He elects to be His.

The Greek word for the word translated "foreknowledge" is transliterated "Prognosis" and is the noun which is the basis of its verb "Proginosko". Prognosis is used in Acts 2:23, which speaks of God the Father's foreknowledge that unbelieving Israel would deliver His Son up to be crucified. Its verb form is used in Rom. 8:29; Acts 26:5; Rom. 11:2; 1 Pet. 1:20 and 2 Pet. 3:17. All of the uses of this word, in either its noun or verb form, mean a knowing of events before they happen, and are part of the omniscient nature of God.

Therefore, the verse quite clearly says that the elect were chosen based on the foreknowledge of God the Father. Please notice the grammar, in that the elect were chosen "...according to the foreknowledge of God the Father". The text doesn't say that they were elected or chosen in conjunction with God's foreknowledge, but rather "according to" His foreknowledge. The logical conclusion then is that God used His foreknowledge in choosing the elect.

w.but if it is a question involving predestination i will say this.

2006-08-13 10:02:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

yes amen... I agree with Jeremiah... We are ALL called unto salvation but only a few of us truly recieve it

2006-08-13 10:00:29 · answer #2 · answered by Holla!!! 3 · 1 0

I feel we are given slavation and not by any thing we do but by the grace of GOD.

Psalms 3:8
Salvation belongeth unto the Lord - That is, it pertains to God alone to save. The psalmist had no expectation of saving himself; he had no confidence in the unaided prowess of his own arm. If he was to be saved he felt that it was to be only by God, and the praise of this was to be given to Him. The particular reference here is to temporal deliverance, or deliverance from the dangers which surrounded him then; but the declaration is as true of spiritual deliverance - of the salvation of the soul - as it is of deliverance from temporal danger. In both cases it is true that God only saves, and that all the praise is due to him.

Thy blessing is upon thy people - Or perhaps, rather, "thy blessing be upon thy people," regarding this as a "prayer" rather than an "affirmation." It is true, indeed, as an affirmation (compare Ps 2:12); but it accords better with the connection here, and is a more appropriate conclusion of the psalm to regard it as a petition, expressing an earnest desire that the blessing of God might ever rest upon his own people. Then the thoughts of the psalmist are turned away from his own perils to the condition of others; from his individual case to that of the Church at large; and he prays that all others may find the same favors from God which he had so richly enjoyed, and which he hoped still to enjoy. It is one of the characteristics of true piety thus to turn from our own condition to that of others, and to desire that what we enjoy may be partaken of by the people of God everywhere.

2Th 2:13
But we are bound to give thanks always to God for you, brethren beloved of the Lord, because God has from the beginning chosen you to salvation through sanctification of the Spirit and belief of the truth:

2006-08-13 10:24:32 · answer #3 · answered by prtalbany 2 · 0 0

Yes, because there are many verses in the bible that speak about God's calling. 1Timothy 1:9 "He who delivered and saved us and called us..." Romans 1:6, "and this includes you, called of Jesus Christ...", Hebrews 3:1 "so then bretheran, consecrated and set apart for God, who share in the heavenly calling...."

There are too many to list. Look in a concordance under call, called or calling; there are dozens of verses.

2006-08-13 10:02:34 · answer #4 · answered by christian_lady_2001 5 · 1 0

ABSOLUTELY. i was away from the Church for years and returned and several of my friends returned. God only wants to love us

2006-08-13 10:04:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

'as many as were apponted to eternal life believed' Acts

'you did not choose Me, I chose you and apponted you so that you might bear fruit" John

so yes, appointed

2006-08-13 10:00:53 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Jesus said: "It's not my will that ANY should perish but that ALL will come to repentence!!"

2006-08-13 09:58:59 · answer #7 · answered by Jeremiah 1 · 0 0

I love my God.

2006-08-13 10:00:29 · answer #8 · answered by rocksinger4ever 4 · 1 0

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